PSYC 1200-02 GENERAL PSYCHOLOGY
Spring Semester, 1999 – Dr. G.L. Kandel
Library Pool – QUIZ 5 – April 28, 1999
1. According to the text, compared with other cultures, Western culture's attitude toward sex:
A. is very liberal
B. has changed from being liberal to being conservative
C. is repressive
2. What lessons are learned from comparing Mangaia and Inis Beag?
A. What is homosexuality in one culture is not considered homosexuality in another.
B. Despite huge cultural differences, sexual behavior is remarkably similar around the world.
C. In some cultures, women are the initiators of sexual behavior.
3. In his 1948 study Kinsey found that:
A. the majority of his sample regarded oral-genital stimulation as a normal part of foreplay
B. less than half of his sample had engaged in premarital sex
C. many Americans had engaged in culturally prohibited sexual activities
D. only 10 percent of males admitted to ever having masturbated
DSM-IV, he would be labeled as suffering from:
A. a sexual dysfunction
B. "ego-dystonic homosexuality"
C. "sexual disorder not otherwise specified"
D. "homophobia"
5. Ego-dystonic homosexuality was removed from the list of psychiatric disorders because:
A. homosexuals are no more prone to psychopathology than are matched groups of heterosexuals
B. the disorder was rarely diagnosed
C. both a and b
D. neither a nor b
6. Your text identifies two major upheavals in sexual attitudes over the past 30 years. They are:
A. a conservative approach in the 1970s and a more liberal attitude in the 1990s
B. the interest in sexual satisfaction of the 1960s and 1970s and the concern about AIDS in the 1980s and 1990s
C. the concern about sexual performance in the 1960s and 1970s and the desire for sexual satisfaction in the 1980s
D. the disgust with homosexuality in the 1960s and 1970s and the acceptance of homosexuality in the 1980s and 1990s
7. A man is experiencing a recurrent problem involving the disruption of the sexual response cycle that causes him considerable distress. According to the DSM-IV, the man is suffering from:
A. a sexual dysfunction
B. a form of paraphilia
C. a sexual deviance
D. a gender identity disorder
8. Rhoda's lack of interest in sex bothers both her and her husband. This problem would be considered a disorder of which phase of the sexual response cycle?
A. desire
B. arousal
C. orgasm
D. resolution
9. Hypoactive sexual desire disorder is to ________ as sexual aversion disorder is to ________.
A. performance; interest
B. interest; disgust
C. early onset; late onset
D. lack of interest; excessive interest
10. Ken is very interested in sex but never experiences the physiological changes indicative of excitement. Ken would be diagnosed as suffering from:
A. male erectile disorder
B. general sexual dysfunction
C. inhibited desire
D. premature ejaculation
11. If a woman is very interested in sex but never experiences the physiological changes indicative of excitement, she is suffering from a sexual disorder of the __________ phase.
A. arousal
B. performance
C. orgasm
D. resolution
12. What is vaginismus?
A. when muscles at the entry to the vagina contract involuntarily
B. when there is insufficient lubrication of the vagina during intercourse
C. when a woman cannot experience orgasm despite adequate stimulation
D. when a woman experiences severe pain during intercourse
13. Which statement about sexual desire disorders is accurate?
A. The prevalence data on desire disorders are probably more accurate than data on erectile or orgasm problems.
B. Once thought to be a rare, female disorder, desire disorders are fairly common in men and women.
C. both a and b
D. neither a nor b
14. The DSM-IV considers a sexual dysfunction to occur:
A. when there is a lack of performance, regardless of whether an individual or his/her partner is distressed
B. even if the lack of performance occurs in one or two isolated situations
C. only when there is a lack of interest in sexuality or lack of concern about performance
D. only if there is marked distress or interpersonal difficulty related to the condition
15. Psychodynamic thinkers would emphasize ________ when explaining sexual dysfunction.
A. conflicts in the Oedipal stage
B. anal fixation
C. inadequate information
D. the spectator role
16. A therapist believes that Ann's inability to achieve orgasm stems from her association of disgust and anger with feelings of sexual arousal. The therapist most likely holds which psychological perspective?
A. existential
B. humanistic
C. behavioral
D. psychodynamic
17. Nathan has had recurrent erectile dysfunction. His therapist instructs him to give pleasure to his sex partner but forbids him from having an erection. This technique is called:
A. sexual retraining
B. paradoxical instruction
C. spectator role-playing
D. sensate focus
18. Kaplan devised a form of sexual therapy that combines:
A. the "direct" treatment approach with psychodynamic therapy
B. biological treatment with psychological treatment
C. psychodynamic with cognitive therapy
D. behavioral and cognitive therapy techniques
19. According to systems theory, sexual dysfunction:
A. cannot be treated with "direct" treatment
B. is organic in origin
C. reflects inappropriate learning
D. serves psychological needs for both members of a couple
20. Which statement about the direct approach to treatment is accurate?
A. Very few psychologists now use the direct approach.
B. The direct approach is most successful in treating vaginismus and premature ejaculation.
C. The direct approach is too new to have any statistics on its effectiveness.
D. The direct approach is most successful in treating lifelong erectile dysfunction.
21. Todd has been treated for his sexual dysfunction with yohimbe, injections of vascular dilation drugs, and a penile prosthesis. We can guess that Todd's problem is:
A. premature ejaculation
B. generalized erectile disorder
C. dyspareunia
D. hypoactive desire disorder
22. Which of the following is considered a paraphilia?
A. sexual gratification through infliction of pain or humiliation on others
B. occasionally fantasizing about sexual aggression
C. believing that one is trapped in the body of the wrong gender
D. having great interest in sex but being unable to experience orgasm
23. A man collects women's high heel shoes and can only attain sexual gratification if he can fondle these shoes while masturbating. Such behavior could be interpreted as an example of:
A. objectism
B. fetishism
C. voyeurism
D. transvestism
24. According to the text, which of the following is characteristic of transvestism?
A. Transvestites usually have a successful marital sexual relationship.
B. Transvestites appear to be no more prone to psychological disturbance than the general population.
C. Transvestism is unrelated to homosexuality and gender identity disorder.
D. Transvestism and voyeurism usually occur together.
25. Lyndon experiences sexual gratification from exposing himself to women in uncrowded subway cars. He would be diagnosed as a(n):
A. exhibitionist
B. voyeur
C. sadist
D. masochist
26. Craig has been diagnosed as suffering from exhibitionism. He is a young man who is sexually inhibited. He has extremely liberal attitudes toward sex and masturbation. After exposing himself, he goes home and masturbates while fantasizing about the event. Which aspect of Craig's case is unusual?
A. It is unusual for an exhibitionist to be a young man.
B. It is unusual for an exhibitionist to be sexually inhibited.
C. It is unusual for an exhibitionist to have extremely liberal attitudes toward sex and masturbation.
D. It is unusual for an exhibitionist to masturbate while fantasizing about exposing.
27. Which of the following is mentioned in the text as characteristic of voyeurism?
A. It involves an invasion of a woman's privacy and risk of getting caught.
B. It is one of the least commonly reported sexual offenses.
C. Voyeurs are often socially outgoing people.
D. Voyeurs are usually female.
28. Sadism is to ________ as masochism is to ________.
A. children; adults
C. inflicting pain; being abused
D. being abused; inflicting pain
29. Larry, 23, obtains sexual gratification only when he can rub his genitals against women in places like elevators or buses. He has been doing this since he was 15. This paraphilia, new in the DSM-IV, is called:
A. sadism
B. frotteurism
C. voyeurism
D. pedophilia
30. Which of the following statements about pedophiles is true?
A. Most pedophiles use physical violence in their sexual encounters with children.
B. Most pedophiles are law-abiding, well-respected members of their community.
C. Most pedophiles molest children they do not know.
D. It is rare for a pedophile to be under 50 years old.
31. What type of child abuse seems to do the most psychological harm?
A. if the child comes to cooperate in the sexual abuse
B. if the molester is a stranger to the child
C. if the abuse was one traumatic event in the child's life
D. if the child's parents accept the fact that the abuse occurred
32. Ronnie has always felt that she is a man trapped in a woman's body. She feels more comfortable when wearing men's clothing and is currently investigating the possibility of a sex change operation. Ronnie would be labeled a(n):
A. voyeur
B. exhibitionist
C. transvestite
D. transsexual
33. According to Russell's (1986) household survey of women who were victims of incest, the most common pattern was:
A. fathers repeatedly engaging in intercourse
B. brothers using violence to have sex
C. intercourse that occurred before the age of 2
D. a single incestuous assault by an uncle
34. One of the reasons father-daughter incest is considered the most psychologically damaging is because:
A. the victim often assumes the caretaking role in the family
B. some mothers blame their daughters for threatening to break up the family
C. it is considered the "supreme betrayal"
D. all of the above are correct
35. Which of the following is not true concerning the prevalence of rape?
A. In a college survey, almost 28 percent of women experienced a rape or attempted rape, but almost none were reported.
B. About 100,00 rapes are reported to police each year.
C. Although it is common, date rape has few of the long-term effects of other forms of rape.
D. Rapes by strangers are much more likely to be reported than rapes by acquaintances.
36. The fact that many rapists seem no different psychologically from "normal" men suggests that:
A. rapists may be suffering from an organic disorder
B. many rapes may be the result of a cultural emphasis on sex and violence
C. psychological diagnostic instruments are not sensitive enough to pick up differences
D. rape is a crime of sex, not aggression
37. According to the psychodynamic perspective, the major source of sexual deviation is fixation:
A. in the anal stage
B. over genital stage shame and guilt
C. about castration and penis envy in the Oedipal stage
D. about separation and individuation during the oral stage
38. The simplest behavioral interpretation of sexual deviation is that the sexual behavior (especially masturbation) was paired with certain stimuli. This suggests that the process involved:
A. operant conditioning
B. classical conditioning
C. negative reinforcement
D. modeling
39. Covert sensitization, shame aversion therapy, and stimulus satiation are all ________ approaches to treating ________.
A. behavioral; paraphilias
B. behavioral; sexual dysfunctions
C. cognitive; gender identity disorder
D. cognitive; paraphilias
40. Which behavioral treatment for sexual deviations involves presenting the arousing object over and over again until the individual no longer finds it stimulating?
A. stimulus satiation
B. shame aversion therapy
C. systems theory
D. covert sensitization
41. What is involved in the relapse prevention training of sex offenders?
A. maintaining them on such medications as Prozac and Serax
B. entering and confronting situations that place them at high risk for relapse
C. learning they have voluntary control over their impulses
D. all of the above are correct
42. Role reversal therapy with rapists has the therapist take the role of the offender and has the offender take the role of an authority figure. The rapists now has to contradict his own sexually aggressive belief system. What perspective supports this form of treatment?
A. psychodynamic
B. cognitive
C. biological
D. systems
43. The use of castration and brain surgery to "treat" sex offenders is a reflection of which perspective on sexual disorders?
A. psychodynamic
B. behavioral
C. humanistic
D. biological
44. A current widely-used biological treatment for chronic sex offenders is:
A. castration
B. electroconvulsive shock
C. administration of antiandrogens
D. yohimbe medication
45. Which statement about biological treatment for chronic pedophiles is accurate?
A. Antiandrogen treatment combined with psychotherapy seems to reduce recidivism.
B. No form of treatment has been found to be any better than incarceration.
C. Antidepressant medication has only been effective with aggressive pedophiles.
D. The most effective treatment has involved high doses of testosterone.
46. A psychotherapist considers it very important that his patients become aware of the reasons for doing what they do. He believes that problems occur when patients do not understand their motives. What type of therapy does he practice?
A. insight
B. behavioral
C. action
D. biological
47. Dr. Rayburn is a therapist who teaches her clients to improve their listening and social skills as the means of eliminating their psychological problems. Dr. Rayburn is employing:
A. psychoanalysis
B. action therapy
C. self-help training
D. insight therapy
48. The general trend in therapy is toward:
A. insight and away from action
B. action and away from insight
C. an integration of action and insight approaches
D. the separation of action and insight approaches
49. A cognitive-behavioral therapist and a psychodynamic therapist got together and compared their impressions of when they thought clients had made the most progress. Research suggests that:
A. the psychodynamic therapist would have very few such moments to discuss
B. the psychodynamic therapist would be more likely to remember times when clients became highly emotional
C. the cognitive-behavioral therapist would be more likely to mention times when clients engaged in transference behaviors
D. the cognitive-behavioral therapist would be more likely to remember times when clients became highly emotional
50. Which of the following is a major trend in the assessment of therapy today?
A. a demand for accountability concerning the practical value of therapy
B. grander and more sweeping claims made for therapy's value
C. making the techniques of specific therapies more and more of a secret
D. a movement away from the practical toward the academic and theoretical
51. Presently, 200 different types of psychotherapy exist. Prior to this diversification, which school had unquestioned dominance?
A. behaviorism
B. humanism
C. psychoanalysis
D. interpersonal
52. In the past 50 years, the field of therapy has experienced all of the following except:
A. a decrease in the percentage of the population making at least one voluntary mental health visit per year
B. a dramatic increase in the number of different forms of psychotherapy
C. a decrease in the stigma associated with obtaining psychotherapy
D. an increased concern about accountability and practicality
53. According to psychoanalytic theory, in order for a cure to be accomplished, which structure of personality must be strengthened?
A. ego
B. id
C. unconscious wishes
D. superego
54. You are about to begin therapy with a traditional psychoanalyst. During your treatment you should expect all of the following except to:
A. meet only with the analyst
B. sit face to face with the analyst during the session
C. lie on a couch
55. According to the text, all of the following are basic techniques used in traditional psychoanalysis except:
A. analysis of resistance
B. free association
C. hypnosis
D. analysis of transference
56. The manifest content of dreams is to ________ as latent content is to ________.
A. libido; ego
B. subconscious; conscious
C. surface meaning; real meaning
D. neurosis; psychosis
57. Marlin has been in psychoanalytic therapy for several weeks. He comes in late to a session and when asked by the therapist what he remembers discussing in the last session says, "I don't remember anything." The therapist would likely see this as:
A. resistance
B. transference
C. manifest content
D. signs of conditions of worth
58. During a psychoanalytic session, the patient becomes overtly hostile toward the analyst. At one point he exclaims, "You're just as restrictive and domineering as my father!" This patient is demonstrating:
A. libido
B. free association
C. transference
D. resistance
59. Which of the following is an accurate statement about ego psychology?
A. It is the kind of psychology Freud himself supported.
B. It puts critical importance on mother-child relationships.
C. It argues that the id must be given a strong "voice" in therapy.
D. It points out the ego's role in serving the id's demands for sex and aggression.
60. According to the text, of the following, the least valid criticism of psychodynamic therapy is that it:
A. is difficult to validate scientifically
B. involves a multiplicity of psychodynamic theories
C. relies too heavily on subjective, intuitive judgment
D. is elitist
61. Which concept does not belong with Carl Rogers' form of therapy?
A. unconditional positive regard
B. client-centered
C. self-actualization
D. ego control
62. Eric has told his wife Janice that he will leave her if she doesn't lose some weight and stop taking night courses. According to Carl Rogers, Eric is:
A. stifling Janice's potential worth
B. imposing conditions of worth
C. creating congruence in Janice
D. demonstrating unconditional regard
63. A client-centered therapist wants to convey to the client that whatever the client feels or thinks is appreciated and real. The therapist accepts the person as he or she is. This focus on acceptance is called:
A. unconditional positive regard
B. transference
C. conditions of worth
D. mirroring
64. In client-centered therapy, the factors of key importance are:
A. interpretation and the unconscious
B. empathy and intuition
C. skill-building and direction
D. family alliances and communications
65. Gestalt therapy is to ________ as client-centered therapy is to ________.
A. Rollo May; Carl Rogers
B. Fritz Perls; Carl Rogers
C. Carl Rogers; Viktor Frankl
D. Carl Rogers; Rollo May
66. The type of therapy in which clients are asked to dig up their past conflicts and reenact them in the consulting room is called __________ therapy.
A. client-centered
B. ego psychology
C. rational-emotive
D. Gestalt
67. How is experiential therapy different than Gestalt therapy?
A. it puts more emphasis on unconscious conflicts and fixation
B. it assumes that people are the product of their cultural environment
C. it aims to be more scientific by producing detailed training manuals
D. it rejects the importance of emotional expression
68. Both humanistic-existential therapy and psychodynamic therapy can be criticized for:
A. being deterministic
B. seeing the person as fundamentally evil
C. being unscientific and hard to evaluate
D. providing treatments that are superficial and manipulative
69. A psychologist believes that mental disorders are the result of faulty learning and that therapy should be directed toward manipulating the environment to build skills. What type of therapist is he?
A. behavioral
B. humanistic-existential
C. psychodynamic
D. experiential
70. Dr. Ellington is a behavior therapist. He is seeing two clients---one has very weak social skills, the other is excessively fearful of spiders and insects. We can expect that Dr. Ellington will:
A. use analysis of resistance and analysis of transference in treating both
B. use operant conditioning to treat the first and respondent conditioning to treat the second
C. use respondent conditioning to treat the first and cognitive reframing to treat the second
D. take a phenomenological and non-directive approach to treat the first and operant conditioning to treat the second
71. A mother gives her 3-year-old daughter a Hershey's Kiss every time the child does not wet the bed. When the child wets the bed, she does not receive this treat. This would be considered an example of:
A. flooding
B. classical conditioning
C. stimulus control
D. contingency management
72. Tom wishes to stop eating ice cream. After discovering that Tom only eats ice cream while watching television, a behavior therapists urges him to stop watching television and, instead, read or paint---both of which he enjoys. After several weeks of reading and painting, Tom finds he has had no ice cream. What method did the therapist use?
A. cognitive reframing
B. stimulus control
C. systematic desensitization
73. Contingency management and stimulus control are to ________ as systematic desensitization and flooding are to ________.
B. operant conditioning; modeling
C. operant conditioning; respondent conditioning
D. respondent conditioning; cognitive-behavioral
74. In operant conditioning therapy the aim is changing behavior directly. In respondentconditioning therapy techniques try to change:
A. emotions
B. thoughts
C. attributions
D. underlying conflicts and needs
75. A behavior therapist is teaching his phobic client how to relax. If systematic desensitization is being employed, what is the next step in treatment?
A. inducing anger
B. constructing a hierarchy of fears
C. observing other fearful individuals
D. experiencing maximal fear
76. A woman with an intense fear of snakes develops, with her behavioral therapist, a list of anxiety-provoking situations, ranging from seeing a picture of a snake in a magazine as least stressful to having a snake wrapped around her body as most stressful. What behavioral treatment is she likely undergoing?
A. stimulus control
B. systematic desensitization
C. aversion therapy
D. flooding
77. Arnold is a social phobic. After the therapist has learned about Arnold's greatest fears, she tells him to imagine this scene: "You are in the middle of a crowd and everyone is looking at you. They see that you are overweight and have acne. Your zipper is open and you try to close it. You can't because it's broken." The therapist continues to paint word pictures designed to generate anxiety in Arnold. What type of therapy is being used?
A. flooding
B. sadistic therapy
C. aversion
D. in vivo desensitization
78. A pedophile is shown slides of young children. As soon as he develops an erection in response to a slide, he is given an electric shock. Eventually the patient stops experiencing sexual arousal in response to young children. What type of therapy is being employed?
A. aversion
B. flooding
C. systematic desensitization
D. stimulus control
79. In covert sensitization:
A. a maladaptive response is paired with a physically aversive stimulus
B. the client imagines the aversive stimuli along with a visualization of the maladaptive behavior
C. the positive or negative consequences of exhibiting a certain behavior can condition the individual to repeat or avoid that behavior
D. the client imagines a positive situation while the therapist introduces the anxiety-producing stimulus in vivo
80. Skill-building is to ________ as thought-changing is to ________.
A. cognitive; humanistic-existential
B. behavioral; psychodynamic
C. behavioral; cognitive
D. humanistic-existential; cognitive
81. The therapy that aims to change the pattern of thoughts underlying maladaptive behavior is known as:
A. cognitive restructuring
B. systematic desensitization
C. psychoanalysis
82. Which theorist focused on such beliefs associated with depression as self-devaluation and pessimism?
A. Aaron Beck
B. Albert Ellis
C. Fritz Perls
D. Carl Rogers
83. A therapist has his obese and depressed client look in the mirror and observe herself. He has her write about her emotions so as to understand how she constructed a theory about her world that is distorted. The therapist's approach is closest to:
A. psychodynamic therapy
B. Beck's cognitive therapy
C. constructivist cognitive therapy
D. covert sensitization
84. Jennifer is a depressed teenager who thinks that her best friend moved away only because Jennifer stopped visiting her after school for about a week. A cognitive therapist challenges Jennifer's causal hypothesis and gets her to see that the friend moved from reasons out of Jennifer's control. The focus of the therapist's work is:
A. systematic desensitization
B. decatastrophizing
C. reattribution training
D. self-instruction
85. A client says: "If I leave my job, my parents will say I am lazy and then I'll feel terrible." The therapist says: "Being realistic, what is the worst that can happen if you leave your job. Will it kill you?" The therapist's response illustrates the technique of ________ used by cognitive therapists.
A. reattribution training
B. decatastrophizing
C. flooding
D. mirroring
86. A major objection to the cognitive therapy approach is that:
A. in certain situations, changing the way one thinks is not appropriate or right
B. it has not been shown to be effective for the most common psychological disorders
C. not enough emphasis is placed on the rational aspects of life
D. training new therapists is a difficult process
87. Research on the effects of psychotherapy shows that:
A. psychotherapy is as powerful as, or more powerful than, drug treatment
B. psychotherapy is helpful, but extremely slow to work
C. only about one-half of people see improvement after about 20 sessions
D. improvement does not taper off with increased duration of treatment
88. Which of the following is a fair summary of research comparing the effectiveness of different forms of psychotherapy?
A. No form of psychotherapy is significantly better than no therapy at all.
B. Insight-oriented therapies are significantly more effective than action-oriented therapies.
C. The effectiveness of therapies is in this order (from worst to best): cognitive, behavioral, psychodynamic, humanistic-existential
D. Psychodynamic, behavioral, and humanistic-existential therapies are about equal in effectiveness, with behavioral having a slight edge.
89. If present trends continue, which approach to therapy will become increasingly popular?
A. behavioral
B. psychodynamic
C. humanistic-existential
D. eclectic
90. One of the most significant changes in psychological therapy in recent years has been:
A. the decline of behavior therapy
B. a resurgence of psychodynamic therapy
C. the emergence of group therapy
91. All of the following are factors that Irvin Yalom has postulated as promoting therapeutic change in group therapy except:
A. hope
B. self-instruction
C. imitative behavior
D. social support
92. During group therapy, one patient, who has been frightened by her aggressive feelings, realizes that others feel the same way. Which of Yalom's eleven factors promoting therapeutic change in group therapy does this best illustrate?
A. universality
B. catharsis
C. corrective recapitulation
D. desensitization
93. Which of the following is a factor related to therapeutic change that is unique to group therapy ?
A. catharsis
B. information
C. hope
D. cohesiveness
94. Clients in this form of group therapy act out their emotional conflicts in company with other group members. Developed by J. L. Moreno, this psychoanalytically-oriented group therapy is called:
A. Gestalt
B. psychodrama
C. assertiveness training
D. experiential encounter
95. Which of the following is not a common psychodrama technique?
A. flooding
B. role reversal
C. mirroring
D. double technique
96. In general, behavioral therapy groups stress which of the following of Yalom's therapeutic factors?
A. imitative behavior
B. group cohesiveness
C. group process
D. catharsis
97. Social-skills training and assertiveness training groups are likely to stress:
A. the deep-rooted emotional causes of problems
B. group process over information
C. the unconscious over the conscious
D. information and behavioral rehearsal
98. Joanne has had schizophrenia for many years. She is in a form of group therapy where she learns about grooming and hygiene, money management, and how to make social conversation by observing the therapist and practicing with others in the grouPage: Joanne is participating in:
A. social-skills training
B. an encounter group
C. assertiveness training
D. psychodrama
99. ________ group therapy is most likely to use Aaron Beck's theories on depression and have group members focus on the thoughts that trigger negative emotions.
A. Encounter
B. Cognitive
C. Gestalt
100. Behavioral group therapy is to ________ as cognitive group therapy is to ________.
A. information; hope
B. social support; irrational thoughts
C. specific skills; catharsis
D. social skills; irrational thoughts
101. Humanistic group therapies are likely to stress which group of Yalom's factors?
A. universality, hope, and information
B. development of social skills, universality, and imitative behavior
C. imitative behavior, information, development of social skills
D. interpersonal learning, social support, and emotional catharsis
102. Groups like Overeaters Anonymous, Narcotics Anonymous, and Adult Children of Alcoholics are:
A. types of assertiveness training
B. peer self-help groups
C. large community groups
D. encounter groups
103. Following a review of group-therapy outcome literature, Bednar and Kaul (1978) concluded that group therapy:
A. was more effective than individual therapy
B. was more effective than a placebo
C. was less effective than no treatment
D. and individual therapy were equally effective
104. The director of a mental health clinic wants to know which type of group therapy is the most effective based on outcome studies. Your recommendation is:
A. social-skills and assertiveness training
B. large community group
C. humanistic Gestalt and encounter
D. traditional psychodynamic group
105. Research by Beutler, Engle, Mohr, et al. (1991) investigated the effectiveness of three different types of group therapy on depressed patients and found that:
A. all patients were resistant to change
B. cognitive therapy was the only kind that worked
C. treatments worked best when they matched patients' belief systems
D. experiential and cognitive group therapies were as likely to harm patients as help them
106. All family therapies have in common the assumption that:
A. the family is a system
B. a single family member is almost always responsible for the family disturbance
C. communication problems are the primary cause of family disturbance
D. therapists should only focus on changing the problem behaviors
107. Which type of family therapy developed as an extension of the double-bind theory of schizophrenia?
A. structural family therapy
B. milieu or transactional approach
C. communications or strategic approach
D. parent-training approach
108. What family therapy technique requires the family to engage in whatever maladaptive behavior they are already engaging in?
A. eyeball-to-eyeball
B. double technique
C. role reversal
D. paradoxical intention
109. Behavioral family therapy has been used primarily for which two disorders?
A. phobias and conduct disorders
B. conduct disorders and depression
C. depression and schizophrenia
D. schizophrenia and conduct disorders
110. A couple experiencing serious conflicts enters couples therapy. After several sessions, the therapist tells the couple, "It is evident that you influence each other's behavior through complaining, yelling, and threatening." The therapist is telling the couple that their relationship is characterized by:
A. double-binds
B. aversion
C. reciprocity
D. coercion
111. Which statement about marital violence is accurate?
A. Less than one percent of female homicide victims are killed by their husbands.
B. Historically, our society has made wife battering a public, and harshly-punished offense.
C. Traditionally, police officers have intervened promptly in cases of domestic violence.
D. Domestic violence occurs in about one in four American families.
112. Therapy for wife batterers usually emphasizes:
A. cognitive restructuring and having the men take responsibility for the violence they have done
B. helping the men understand that aggressive instincts are not controllable and that they are not responsible for their actions
C. the early childhood origins of their distrust of women
D. that, while anger is an emotion that can be controlled, violence is a behavior that cannot be controlled
113. Critics of group therapy for marital violence argue that:
A. there is not enough money to provide treatment for wife batterers
B. gender inequality and dominance of women are the key issues, not anger control
C. society should recognize males' rights to be in charge of their family's actions
D. there are no data to indicate that group therapy is effective
114. A recent study comparing traditional behavioral marital therapy with a psychodynamic insight-oriented approach found that:
A. behavior therapy was more effective in the long term
B. neither therapy had any short-term effect
C. both therapies resulted in long-term improvement
D. psychodynamic therapy was more effective in the long-term
115. Which of the following was not a factor that contributed to the failure of large institutions in the treatment of the mentally ill?
A. the institutions being located near cities
B. a lack of trained staff
C. the stigma of being in the institution
D. the treatment being custodial rather than remedial
116. An institutional environment that is arranged so that all of a patient's daily interactions will be of some value in treating the patient's disorder is called a:
A. token economy
B. total institution
C. milieu environment
D. therapeutic environment
117. Fritz Redl's Pioneer School for delinquent boys is to the ________ as token economy facilities are to the ________.
A. behavioral approach; humanistic approach
B. current method of treatment; treatment of the past
C. psychodynamic approach; behavioral approach
D. punishment of violence; encouragement of violence
118. Milieu therapy developed as a reaction to the:
A. rise of behavioral therapies
B. decline of psychodynamic therapeutic communities
C. type of custodial care typically offered to chronic patients
D. call for less democracy in large hospital settings
119. Which concepts are most closely associated with milieu therapy ?
A. democracy, independence, and self-respect
B. consequences, control, and emotional restraint
C. unconscious-made-conscious, emotional expression, childhood
D. information, imitation, and involvement
120. The introduction of effective antipsychotic drugs led to:
A. the emergence of psychodynamic group therapies
B. the development of the milieu approach
C. the exodus of psychiatric patients from hospitals
D. the rejection of the token economy as a treatment method
121. Who was most responsible for the "bold new approach" that led to the Community Mental Health Centers Act of 1963?
A. Carl Rogers
B. Thomas Szasz
C. Dorothea Dix
D. John Kennedy
122. A "catchment area" refers to:
A. the physical environment during group therapy
B. the portion of a mental hospital where patients have their first contact with staff
C. a geographical region from which patients are drawn
D. the slang term for a mental hospital admitting office
123. Some community centers provide teams of mental health workers to serve in emergency rooms of general hospitals. Their presence could help reduce the possibility that patients admitted for medical emergencies would experience:
A. involuntary commitment
B. panic
C. phobia
D. posttraumatic stress disorder
124. In a major city, police officers have been trained by psychologists at a community mental health center how to intervene effectively in domestic violence situations. The psychologists who did the training probably came from the center's:
A. inpatient services unit
B. catchment area
C. consultation services unit
D. halfway house
125. What has been the effect of training New York City police officers in how to intervene effectively in family quarrels?
A. There has been little evidence confirming the effectiveness of the training.
B. Although the training led to a dramatic decrease in assaults on officers, the training program has not been duplicated by any other police force.
C. There was a decrease in assaults both among family members and on the police officers.
D. It led to a large increase in the number of domestic violence offenders who received psychotherapy.
126. When mental patients live together in a supervised setting and provide mutual support during readjustment to community life, they are residing in a(n):
A. outpatient center
B. halfway house
C. community milieu center
D. catchment area
127. A research study showed that when halfway-house care was added to discharge from a psychiatric hospital, the effect was to:
A. reduce the average yearly hospital stay of patients
B. make patients more dependent on the staff
C. increase the patient's need for antipsychotic medications
D. actually increase the recidivism rates of patients
128. Which of the following characteristics does not apply to long-term care facilities? They:
A. are located in the community
B. serve as a bridge between the institution and independent living
C. are smaller than hospitals
D. may include elderly people
129. A community mental health center develops an after-school program for the younger siblings of gang members. It is hoped that if provided with alternative activities and role models, these children will not follow in their older brothers' footsteps. This program demonstrates what level of prevention?
A. primary
B. secondary
C. tertiary
130. A community mental health center develops a program with local schools in which teachers can ask a mental health worker to observe children who the teacher feels may be experiencing psychological problems. It is thought that if these problems can be caught and treated early, more serious disorders can be avoided. This program demonstrates what level of prevention?
A. primary
B. secondary
C. tertiary
D. immediate
131. In terms of prevention, an emergency service for psychotic patients is a form of ________; a hot line that identifies people early in their need for care is an example of ________.
A. rapid-delivery prevention; slow-delivery prevention
B. primary prevention; secondary prevention
C. consultation; referral
D. tertiary prevention; secondary prevention
132. Which statement about the homeless is accurate?
A. About two-thirds of the homeless are psychiatric patients who live in halfway houses.
B. Most people with mental disorders become homeless because they refuse to accept the free services provided when they are discharged from hospitals.
C. One study of homeless men found that one-half showed evidence of either severe alcoholism or severe psychopathology.
D. Most community mental health centers have had great success housing the mentally ill in high-quality facilities.
133. In terms of mental health treatments, one recent trend has been a(n):
A. substantial increase in private psychiatric hospital admissions
B. decrease in for-profit hospitals
C. a steep drop in the number of private psychiatric beds available
D. increase in outpatient treatment of children and adolescents
134. Which of the following areas of research within abnormal psychology is presently the best funded and most active?
A. psychodynamic
B. behavioral
C. interpersonal
D. biological
135. Dr. Gordon is interested in the effects of drug treatment on psychological disorders. Her area of study is called:
A. psychopharmacology
B. psychosomatic therapy
C. chemotherapy
D. pharmacodynamics
136. Which of the following is not one of the major types of drugs used to treat mental disorders?
A. antianxiety
B. antipsychotic
C. antiphobic
D. antidepressant
137. A psychiatrist has given his patient Xanax for six weeks and then changes to Valium. We can guess that the patient was:
A. consistently diagnosed as having anxiety problems
B. first diagnosed as having anxiety problems and then as being depressed
C. first diagnosed as being depressed and then as being schizophrenic
138. In the 1890s people would use bromides and opium-based compounds. In the 1990s they use benzodiazepines. In both cases they were treating:
B. schizophrenia
C. anxiety problems
D. epilepsy
139. A patient is deciding if he wants to take Valium for the treatment of anxiety. Which of the following should he be concerned about?
A. The possibility of developing tardive dyskinesia
B. Liver damage after long-term use
C. A serious interaction with certain foods and wine
D. Fatigue, drowsiness, and impaired coordination
140. Research indicates that patients who use benzodiazepines for over one year:
A. are easily able to become drug-free, as long as the drug is tapered off gradually
B. are unable to become drug-free if they were on long-acting drugs, but have no problem being drug-free if they were on short-acting drugs
C. are unable to become drug-free despite the use of cognitive-behavioral treatment
D. have great difficulty becoming drug-free, especially if they suffer from panic disorder
141. Problems with benzodiazepines have led to the use of which of the following category of drugs to treat anxiety disorders?
A. lithium
B. antidepressant
C. antipsychotic
D. bromides
142. Although antianxiety drugs may be helpful on a short-term basis, their use can be counterproductive because:
A. they are expensive and financial problems create anxiety
B. by helping a person tolerate anxiety, they make it less likely that the person will solve the underlying problem
C. they might lead the person to take stronger drugs
D. prolonged use may trigger panic attacks
143. Two insomniacs are given two different drugs. One is given Dalmane, a long-acting hypnotic. The other is given Halcion, a short-acting hypnotic. We can expect that:
A. only the one getting Dalmane will have an easier time getting to sleep
B. only the one getting Halcion will feel groggy during the daytime
C. only the one getting Dalmane will feel groggy during the daytime
D. neither will experience rebound if they stop taking the drug
144. ________ are drugs that disturb the "architecture" of sleep and produce REM rebound when the person tries to sleep without using these drugs.
A. Benzodiazepine hypnotics
B. Short-acting phenothiazines
C. Long-acting antidepressants
D. BuSpar and Ambien
145. You can call them major tranquilizers or neuroleptics. You can also call them:
A. antihistamines
B. antipsychotic drugs
C. antianxiety drugs
146. Phenothiazine is to ________ as benzodiazepine is to ________.
A. sleep problems; anxiety problems
B. antidepressant; antianxiety
C. antipsychotic; antianxiety
147. A patient is diagnosed as schizophrenic. His physician will most likely prescribe:
B. Prozac
C. Valium
D. amphetamine
148. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the effect of antipsychotic drugs on schizophrenia? These drugs:
A. change underlying dynamics but do not alter symptoms
B. provide symptomatic relief
C. make patients resistant to relapses
149. A person is being treated for schizophrenia with antipsychotic drugs. He is likely to experience:
A. fatigue
B. REM rebound
C. both a and b
D. neither a nor b
150. A schizophrenic patient who has been treated with large doses of antipsychotic drugs for several years has developed an irreversible muscle disorder that is characterized by uncontrollable grimaces, lip smacking, and spasms. What is this condition called?
A. anterograde amnesia
B. Tourette's syndrome
C. anhedonia
D. tardive dyskinesia
151. The "revolving door" syndrome:
A. has been most successfully treated by behavior therapists
B. refers to a patient's frequent admissions to and discharges from a mental hospital
C. is the phenomenon in which a diagnostician recommends therapy and the therapist, in turn, recommends more diagnostic assessment
D. refers to patients who shop for therapists and quickly go from one to the other
152. What is so special about clozapine?
A. It is an antianxiety drug that has no rebound effect or interaction with alcohol.
B. It helps a significant number of treatment-resistant schizophrenics
C. It is an antipsychotic drug that produces tardive dyskinesia
D. It treats depression and can also alter personality
153. Joe is a schizophrenic who did not benefit from taking a wide range of antipsychotic drugs. Just this year, his symptoms have been successfully controlled with a new drug. The only problem is that Joe must have his blood checked weekly. The drug is:
A. clozapine
B. an MAO inhibitor
C. Prozac
D. lithium carbonate
154. All of the following are antidepressants except:
A. MAO-inhibitors
B. tricyclics
C. phenothiazines
D. selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
155. A physician has prescribed an MAO inhibitor for a patient. When informing the patient of possible side effects, which of the following would the physician not mention?
A. hand tremors
B. cardiovascular problems
C. illness resulting from eating foods prepared by fermentation
D. potential liver damage
156. MAO inhibitors and tricyclic antidepressants are thought to work by __________ in the brain.
B. decreasing the amount of dopamine and serotonin
C. increasing the amount of acetylcholine and adrenalin
D. increasing the amount of norepinephrine and serotonin
157. Ronald has gotten a prescription for the most widely prescribed antidepressant. It is a long-acting drug that suppresses the reuptake of serotonin. The drug is called:
A. Clozaril
C. Prozac
D. Lithium
158. In addition to treating depression, Prozac seems effective at:
A. reducing the highs and lows of bipolar disorder
B. eliminating the positive symptoms of schizophrenia
C. eliminating symptoms without altering personality
D. reducing obsessive-compulsive symptoms
159. Prozac is a controversial drug because it:
A. can rapidly alter personality
B. is highly addictive and causes severe withdrawal symptoms
C. is more effective than other antidepressants but has more severe side effects in the majority of patients
D. is usually prescribed for depression but actually is a better treatment for mania
160. A man is admitted to a psychiatric hospital in an extreme state of psychotic mania. What drug will likely be prescribed for this patient?
A. clozapine
B. lithium
C. an antianxiety drug
D. Xanax
161. Which of the following is not a problem with the use of lithium to prevent manic episodes?
A. It alters the architecture of sleep and causes REM rebound.
B. The effective dosage is close to the toxic dosage in most patients.
C. Stopping long-term use of the drug may result in a new manic episode.
D. It can cause nausea and convulsions.
162. Tommie has had bipolar disorder for a dozen years. He has been on several medications. Which combination of medications is most likely to have been prescribed?
A. lithium and Tegretol
B. Valium and Librium
C. Prozac and Clozaril
D. lithium and Xanax
163. The recent use of drugs to treat psychological disorders has led some people to assert that:
A. medications do much more harm than good because most of them are addicting
B. there is little evidence that such drugs alter behavior
C. although drugs can be useful, less than half of patients derive any long-term benefit
D. all psychological disorders are biologically determined
164. A recent research study on drug therapy and cognitive therapy for depression indicates that:
A. drug therapy is most effective for people with very mild symptoms
B. cognitive therapy is relatively ineffective compared to drug therapy
C. combinations of the two treatments should always be used
D. it is unclear whether cognitive therapy should be reserved for only mild cases
165. Elaine has suffered from depression for years. She wants to experience both relief from symptoms and a low risk for relapse. Research suggests that she should:
A. take high doses of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SRRIs)
B. be treated with cognitive therapy
C. take phenothiazines and benzodiazepines
166. The authors of the text conclude that, in terms of treatment for psychological disorders, the wave of the future may be:
B. cognitive therapy
C. psychoanalysis
D. a combination of drug therapy and psychotherapy of some type
167. Matthew has been in a severe depression for eight months. He has not responded to tricyclics, SRRIs, or MAO-inhibitors. What alternative therapy is suggested?
A. systematic desensitization
B. electroconvulsive therapy
C. a cingulotomy
D. the medication called Clozaril
168. Electroconvulsive therapy has been found to be an effective treatment for:
A. depression
B. schizophrenia
C. mania
D. extreme anxiety
169. A patient who has just received a series of ECT treatments can remember events of long ago without difficulty, but has trouble learning new information. In fact, he has no memory of his month in the hospital following the ECT. This is called:
A. anterograde amnesia
B. psychogenic amnesia
C. tardive dyskinesia
D. none of the above is correct
170. Which statement about ECT is true?
A. The reason ECT reduces depression is well understood.
B. ECT applied to one hemisphere is just as effective as bilateral ECT.
C. ECT is usually administered when a person is wide awake.
D. The main side effect of ECT is hand tremors and skin sensitivity to light.
171. A physician has decided to give a patient unilateral right electroconvulsive therapy. He most likely chose this treatment because:
A. it is more effective
B. it will work faster
C. there is less chance of memory impairment
D. the convulsion is produced with less electricity
172. Prefrontal lobotomies were an extremely common treatment during the:
A. middle of the 1800s
B. 1920s
C. 1940s and early 1950s
D. 1970s and early 1980s
173. Which of the following treatments replaced psychosurgery as a way of controlling the severely disturbed during the 1950s?
A. electroconvulsive therapy
B. the barbiturates
C. the tricyclics
D. the phenothiazines
174. A patient with severe obsessive-compulsive symptoms who has not responded to therapy or medication has a surgical procedure done in which electrodes are inserted into the brain and heated so that a lesion is produced. It is an operation that has proven to be successful. What is the procedure called?
A. prefrontal lobotomy
B. tardive dyskinesia
C. cingulotomy
D. stereotactic subcaudate tractotomy
175. A violently aggressive patient is undergoing a procedure in which his amygdala will be destroyed by radioactive particles inserted through ceramic rods. This procedure is called:
A. prefrontal lobotomy
B. stereotactic subcaudate tractotomy
C. tardive dyskinesia
D. ECT
176. A common criticism of drug therapy is that drugs do not solve the root problem. In defense of drug therapy, it can be argued that:
A. if the right combination of drugs for a patient is found, the root problem is likely to be solved
C. the patient becomes less anxious about his or her problems
D. symptomatic reduction allows psychotherapy to be employed
177. ________ is treatment that requires few employee hours and is therefore an inexpensive form of care.
A. Drug therapy
B. Cognitive psychotherapy
C. Psychosurgery
D. Electroconvulsive therapy
178. Which of the following is the treatment of last resort?
A. electroconvulsive therapy
B. psychosurgery
C. neuroleptic medication
D. institutional care
179. Lorena Bobbitt was acquitted of cutting off her husband's penis because the jury:
A. found that she was incompetent to stand trial
B. learned that she suffered from amnesia
C. decided she acted on an irresistible impulse
D. believed her actions were due to substance abuse
180. Which of the following is not presently one of the main issues in the treatment of the psychologically disturbed?
A. capital punishment for the legally insane
B. civil commitment
C. criminal law and the mentally disturbed defendant
D. patients' rights
181. Christopher has committed no crime but is so severely disturbed and potentially dangerous to himself that his parents want to institutionalize him against his will. Christopher is facing:
A. an insanity defense
B. a hearing to see if he is competent to stand trial
C. civil commitment
D. a Tarasoff decision
182. A criminal suspect, who was at one time diagnosed a schizophrenic, uses the insanity defense. This means the suspect:
A. admits he is responsible for his actions, but is mentally ill
B. refuses to admit that he or she committed a crime
C. argues that he or she is not competent to stand trial
D. admits committing the crime but was not responsible for those actions
183. John Hinckley employed the insanity defense in his attempted assassination of President Reagan. Technically, Hinckley pleaded:
A. guilty
B. guilty, but mentally ill
C. not guilty
D. guilty with reasonable doubt
184. Paul Meehl (1991) has pointed out that the insanity defense protects the moral prestige of the law because:
A. those judged to be mentally sound have the capacity to choose between good and evil
B. all have the opportunity to make this plea
C. it elevates our system above other systems that do not have this provision
D. it questions a belief in free will
185. A murder suspect claims that voices told him to kill his victim and, at the point of committing the crime did not know that what he was doing was wrong. Which legal test of insanity best applies in this instance?
A. guilty but mentally ill
B. M'Naghten rule
C. ALI test
D. irresistible impulse
186. M'Naghten rule is to ________ as irresistible impulse is to ________.
A. mental illness; personality disorder
B. wrongfulness; control
C. permanent; temporary
D. personal control; right versus wrong
187. The major problem of the Durham Test is that:
A. the jury seldom agrees on when the test is to be used
B. it does not apply to many individuals who commit crimes
C. it does not hold for the truly insane
D. it requires mental health professionals' interpretations and decisions
188. Which statement about the American Law Institute (ALI) formulation of the insanity defense is accurate?
A. The ALI test emphasizes "right versus wrong" but eliminates irresistible impulse.
B. The ALI test incorporates both the M'Naghten and irresistible impulse tests but omits the need for a mental disease or defect.
C. The ALI test emphasizes irresistible impulse but eliminates the M'Naghten test.
D. The ALI test incorporates the M'Naghten, irresistible impulse, and Durham tests.
189. According to the text, many legal scholars feel that the __________ test is the best that can be hoped for in terms of legal tests of insanity because it leaves the judgment about moral responsibility to the jury.
A. ALI
B. Durham
C. irresistible impulse
D. M'Naghten rule
190. Recent research indicates that changes in the wording of the definition of "insanity" have:
A. increased the number of successful insanity defenses
B. confused jurors and judges
C. not made much difference in verdicts
D. made it much more difficult to get an insanity verdict
191. Suppose that a woman kills her children knowing full well that it is a wrongful act. However, she has a long history of paranoid schizophrenia. The judge in the case says, "This woman is responsible for her criminal behavior but is in obvious need of treatment, not mere punishment." The judge seems to be in favor of the verdict:
A. guilty
B. not guilty by reason of insanity
C. guilty but mentally ill
D. temporarily insane
192. Which of the following is a change that occurred after the Hinckley insanity verdict?
A. The prosecution now has to prove that the defendant is sane.
B. The defendant now has to prove that he or she is insane.
C. Most states eliminated the insanity defense altogether.
D. Federal rules were changed to accept only "guilty, but mentally ill" pleas.
193. The Lorena Bobbitt and the Menendez brothers cases have what in common?
A. The defense attorneys claimed that the victims of the crime were mentally ill.
B. The defense attorneys produced evidence of brain damage in the defendants.
C. The defense attorneys claimed that the defendants were victims of abuse.
D. The judge convicted the defendants despite evidence of mental illness.
194. In the wake of the Bobbitt and Menendez cases, some are arguing that the moral seriousness of the law can only be preserved if insanity defenses are restricted to cases where serious mental disorders are documented. Which of the following disorders would be omitted from consideration?
A. antisocial personality disorder
B. paranoid schizophrenia
C. bipolar disorder
D. brain damage leading to psychosis
195. A schizophrenic man committed a bizarre, violent crime and was judged not guilty by reason of insanity. He was involuntarily committed to a hospital. According to the U.S. Supreme Court decision of 1983, when will this man be released?
A. when he proves himself no longer to be dangerous
B. a minimum of 6 months
C. never
D. when a significant other assumes responsibility for his care
196. According to Thomas Szasz, the main problem with the insanity defense is:
A. the difficulty in making valid diagnoses
B. the difficulty the ordinary person has in understanding it
C. the fact that insanity does not exist
D. the tendency to blame society for the individual@s failing
197. Szasz proposes that courts stop judging people by their:
A. intentions and, instead, judge them on their behaviors
B. behaviors and, instead, judge them by their intentions
C. value system, and instead, judge them by their mental conditions
D. behaviors and, instead, place them in hospitals
198. A lawyer explains to his client, "You have been acquitted of attempted murder by reason of insanity. However, you must go to a hospital for treatment and you must stay there until you show them that you won't hurt anyone else." The lawyer has described a(n) __________ sentence.
B. modifiable
C. undefined
D. interminable
199. Which statement about the use of the insanity defense is true?
A. It is used in about 10 percent of felony cases, but is successful in less than half of them.
B. It is used in about 1 percent of felony cases, and is successful almost 100 percent of the time.
C. It is used in less than 1 percent of felony cases, but is successful less than one- quarter of the time.
D. It is used in about 10 percent of felony cases, but is successful less than 1 percent of the time.
200. Insanity is to ________ as incompetency to stand trial is to ________.
A. psychosis; neurosis
B. time of the crime; time of the trial
C. criminal law; civil law
D. irresistible impulse; knowing right from wrong
201. Once a person has been judged competent to stand trial, she:
A. must plead guilty and mentally ill
B. cannot plead insanity
C. can have a judge-decided trial but not a jury trial
D. may plead insanity
202. The 1972 Supreme Court case Jackson v Indiana involved which of the following issues?
A. the right to refuse treatment when committed involuntarily to a mental hospital
B. insanity at the time of the crime
C. limitations on length of confinement after found incompetent to stand trial
D. the standards of proof needed to commit a person involuntarily
203. You are an attorney defending a schizophrenic who was charged with committing a bizarre, violent crime. Your client has been placed on antipsychotic medication and has recently been judged competent to stand trial. You advise him to stop taking the medication because:
A. you want him to be as focused as he can be
B. without medication, chances are better that he will be acquitted by reason of insanity
C. you do not want him to show Parkinson-like symptoms when he is on the witness stand
D. the medication does not really solve his problems
204. In Riggins v. Nevada (1992) the United States Supreme Court ruled that people being tried for a crime:
A. could not be forced to take psychotropic medication unless the court found this necessary to a fair trial
B. could not be found not guilty by reason of insanity if the crime was committed while the person was on medication
C. could not be kept in a hospital for an unlimited period of time if found incompetent to stand trial
D. could be forced to take medication if it made them competent to stand trial
205. Roughly ________ percent of admissions to public mental hospitals are involuntary commitments.
A. 25
B. 55
C. 75
D. 90
206. All of the following are unresolved questions about the role of counsel at a commitment hearing except whether the attorney should:
A. act as a guardian
B. act as an advocate
C. rely on the judgment of expert witnesses
D. worry about whether the client is guilty or innocent
207. A lawyer is defending a client who has been threatened with involuntary commitment. The lawyer tells the judge, "Although my client has remained silent throughout this hearing, this cannot be construed as evidence of mental illness because of my client's right __________ ."
A. for proper standard of proof
B. to be assisted by legal counsel
C. against self-incrimination
D. to remain silent
208. In criminal trials, guilt is established by something like 90 to 95 percent certainty. This standard of proof is defined by the phrase:
A. "beyond a reasonable doubt"
B. "preponderance of the evidence"
C. "clear and convincing evidence"
D. "beyond a shadow of a doubt"
209. In civil proceedings the "preponderance of evidence" standard of proof falls at approximately __________ percent certainty.
A. 10
B. 51
C. 75
D. 95
210. The law has a very high standard of proof in criminal cases because it does not want to make the error called a:
A. false positive
B. false negative
C. true negative
D. true positive
211. In medicine it is considered a terrible error to miss a diagnosis of cancer; it is not such a bad error to incorrectly diagnose cancer and discover that the problem was minor. This means that, in medicine, diagnosticians want to avoid:
A. a false positive
B. a true negative
C. a false negative
D. an error of commission
212. A man who experiences hallucinations and violent outbursts is involuntarily committed. He responds well to antipsychotic drugs. The decision to commit him would be classified as a:
A. true positive
B. true negative
C. false positive
D. false negative
213. In criminal cases, the standard of proof is ________; after the Addington v. Texas (1979) ruling, the standard of proof in civil commitment cases is ________.
A. 51 percent certainty; 75 percent certainty
B. "preponderance of evidence;" "clear and convincing evidence"
C. "beyond a reasonable doubt;" "clear and convincing evidence"
D. 95 percent certainty; 51 percent certainty
214. If a person were not institutionalized and then committed a violent crime, there would probably be a great deal of bad publicity about the case. If the same person, with little tendency to be violent, were institutionalized there would be little if any bad publicity. These factors:
A. explain why therapists criticize the Tarasoff decision
B. illustrate the problem of low interjudge reliability in commitment cases
C. contribute to the high rate of false negatives in commitment cases
D. explain the large number of false positives when predicting dangerousness
215. Involuntary commitment for the sake of providing treatment that the patient had previously refused for irrational reasons is known as the:
A. Tarasoff decision
B. dangerousness reduction theory
C. corrective feedback concept
D. "thank you" proposition
216. The case of Wyatt v. Stickney (1972) spelled out which of the following patients' rights?
A. right to refuse treatment
B. right to confidentiality
C. right to treatment
D. right to legal assistance prior to commitment
217. Which of the following major decisions ruled that "a finding of mental illness alone cannot justify a state's locking a person up against his will and keeping him indefinitely in simple custodial confinement"?
A. O'Connor v. Donaldson
B. Youngberg v. Romeo
C. Wyatt v. Stickney
D. Tarasoff v. Regents of California
218. Suppose that an attorney for a psychiatric hospital argues that mental health professionals should not be second-guessed by attorneys or judges for the decisions they make concerning patient care. This attorney would most likely quote from which of the following Supreme Court cases?
A. Tarasoff v. Regents of California
B. Youngberg v. Romeo
C. Wyatt v. Stickney
D. Jackson v. Indiana
219. A patient who is diagnosed as schizophrenic is at times lucid and at other times is actively psychotic. He has demanded that he not be given antipsychotic drugs when psychotic because he is concerned about developing tardive dyskinesia. He does realize that the drugs help bring him back to reality. The major legal issue involved here is the:
A. right to refuse treatment
B. "thank you" proposition
C. right to treatment
D. protection of society
220. The case of Harper v. Washington, a Supreme Court case of 1990, involved a prison inmate who argued that a judge should determine if he must take antipsychotic drugs against his wishes. The court ruled that:
A. prisoners have no rights when it comes to refusing medication
B. prisoners can make the decision about medication for themselves
C. mental health professionals should make decisions about involuntary treatment
D. judges can overrule the authority of mental health professionals
221. A patient who has, at times, become upset by the mail she receives from her family has had all mail restricted by the nursing staff. The patient wants to have unrestricted mail. Based on the provisions established by the Wyatt v. Stickney decision, as ward administrator, you should:
A. deny her request
B. have the staff read all mail and give her only those letters that are not upsetting
C. overturn the staff decision and accept her request
D. allow her to receive mail but not to send it
222. Which statement about the mental health profession is accurate?
A. The power of the mental health profession has grown because the legal community has avoided making decisions concerning patients@ rights
B. The mental health profession has little power to determine what is normal or abnormal.
C. The mental health profession has great power to decide who is normal and who is not.
D. The mental health profession has given to the legal profession the voting power to decide what is abnormal behavior
223. According to the text, those who need therapy should know enough to:
A. have more power than the therapist
B. give their informed consent
C. change themselves without assistance
D. appreciate the legal controls over therapy