B. dissociative

C. personality

4. anxiety

A. is changeable and based on situational factors

B. has been a stable part of her since adolescence

C. appeared suddenly

4. involves extreme changes in mood

A. Problem behaviors are rarely evident before adolescence.

B. Contact with reality is usually maintained.

C. The disorders may cause more pain to people who deal with such patients than to the patients themselves.

D. The problem trait is so much a part of the person, it is not seen as a disorder.

4. Which personality disorder is characterized by persistent suspiciousness in almost all situations?

A. schizotypal

B. paranoid

C. borderline

D. histrionic

5. Why are people with paranoid personality disorder unlikely to receive treatment?

A. They tend to be very well adjusted socially

B. They are extremely suspicious.

C. They lose contact with reality and cannot function.

D. They do not cause other people much distress.

6. Paranoid schizophrenia is to ________ as paranoid personality disorder is to ________.

A. loss of reality contact; maintenance of reality contact

B. early onset; late onset

C. genetic; environmental

D. poor emotional adjustment; good emotional adjustment

B. schizoid

C. borderline

D. schizotypal

8. Arnold has been diagnosed as exhibiting schizotypal personality disorder. It is likely that:

A. the rest of his family will show no psychopathology

B. some member of his family will be a self-defeating personality

C. he will benefit from medications given to schizophrenics

D. he will develop into a schizophrenic with time
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 

B. odd thinking; shallow emotions

C. preference to be alone; odd thinking

D. odd thinking; preference to be alone

10. "I want to be alone" is the way a person with the ________ personality disorders might describe himself or herself.

A. schizoid

B. histrionic

C. antisocial

D. narcissistic

B. avoidant

C. schizoid

D. schizotypal

12. In avoidant personality disorder, a person withdraws socially because of:

A. an inability to form close bonds

B. bizarre eccentricities

C. a fear of being dependent on other people

D. a fear of being criticized or rejected

13. Avoidant personality disorder and schizoid personality disorder both involve social isolation. The difference is that:

A. in schizoid it is a preference for being alone

B. in avoidant it is a preference for being alone

C. in avoidant it is due to suspiciousness of other people's motives

D. in schizoid it is because of peculiar ideas

B. obsessive-compulsive

C. histrionic

D. dependent

15. According to the text, people with dependent personality disorders tend to be:

A. self-effacing

B. aggressive

C. indifferent to praise and criticism

D. abusive

16. Two distinguishing features of borderline personality disorder are:

A. suspiciousness and self-love

B. hostility and concern with details

C. instability and uncontrolled emotions

D. emotionality and reclusiveness

17. Which perspective has had the most interest in the borderline personality disorder?

A. behavioral

B. sociocultural

C. psychodynamic

D. cognitive
 
 
 
 

18. Which of the following is not an essential feature of histrionic personality disorder?

A. overdependence

B. frequent social withdrawal

C. self-dramatization

D. self-absorption

B. avoidant

C. histrionic

D. borderline

B. borderline; narcissistic

C. schizoid; borderline

D. histrionic; borderline

21. Which of the following personality disorders represents a caricature of femininity?

A. histrionic

B. borderline

C. narcissistic

D. dependent

22. The histrionic personality and the narcissistic personality are similar in that they both:

A. demand a great deal from others but give little in return

B. involve bizarre idiosyncrasies

C. are characterized principally by extreme emotional states

D. involve avoidance of social contact

23. The psychoanalytic community has been most involved in the study of two personality disorders. They are:

A. schizoid and schizotypal

B. borderline and dependent

C. narcissistic and borderline

D. histrionic and obsessive-compulsive

24. The essential features of narcissistic personality disorder are exaggerated:

A. self-importance along with periodic inferiority feelings

B. suspiciousness along with periodic loss of control

C. reclusiveness along with periodic social spontaneity

D. attention to details along with periodic personal messiness

25. A psychoanalyst would say which of the following about a patient diagnosed with narcissistic personality disorder?

A. "She feels weak and unsure of herself because of a lack of reinforcement in childhood."

B. "Her parents had such unrealistic expectations for her when she was a child, she has never felt she could be successful."

C. "She developed a negative self-schema which she is unable to see as unrealistic."

D. "She compensates for inadequate parental affection in early childhood with this false sense of self-importance."

26. According to the social learning perspective, narcissistic personality disorder stems from:

A. inadequate reinforcement of a child's talents

B. inadequate affection and parental approval in early childhood

C. an inflated view of a child's talents, resulting in unrealistic expectations

D. an unresolved Oedipal complex
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 

27. The obsessive-compulsive personality disorder is characterized by:

A. fear of rejection, suspiciousness, and withdrawal from others

B. focus on trivial details, indecisiveness, and inflexibility

C. shallow emotional displays, selfishness, and being sexually provocative

D. an exploitative attitude toward other people, impulsivity, and lack of remorse

B. a person is more likely to lose contact with reality

C. compulsive rituals are severe and bizarre

D. compulsiveness is milder and pervades many aspects of life

29. People with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder tend to be:

A. suspicious of others' motives

B. filled with both anger and grief

C. unconventional and impulsive

D. indecisive

B. sadistic

C. antisocial

D. narcissistic

31. Which statement about antisocial personality disorder is incorrect?

A. It is is the most reliably diagnosed of the personality disorders

B. It involves a chronic indifference to the rights of others

C. It leads to more harm to others than to the person with the disorder

D. It involves a strong element of shyness which impairs social functioning

B. become so disorganized they lose contact with reality

C. usually harm others more than they hurt themselves

D. have extreme changes in mood

B. antisocial

C. borderline

D. histrionic

34. Which syndrome was proposed but never made it into the DSM-IV?

A. sadistic personality disorder

B. passive-dependent personality disorder

C. histrionic personality disorder

D. anxious personality disorder

35. A major objection to the category of "self-defeating personality disorder" is that it tends to:

A. blame the victim for his or her suffering

B. let people who brutalize others off the hook

C. support a psychodynamic orientation

D. overlap with other better established categories
 
 
 
 

36. Which person best illustrates antisocial behavior?

A. Douglas, a shy man who lives alone

B. Jim, an impulsive man who has never held a job for more than 6 months

C. Penny, a woman who fears being rejected by her friends

D. Brad, a man who steals from his parents and lies about it

37. A person in the late nineteenth century who flagrantly disregarded and violated the rights of other people would likely have been called a(n):

A. psychopath

B. sociopath

C. antisocial personality

D. sadistic personality

38. Until the rise of sociology in the twentieth century, antisocial personality (or psychopathy) was thought to stem from:

A. an inherited defect

B. poor role models

C. a lack of social ties to the community

D. inadequate nurturing during early childhood

39. A person who steals in order to support a heroin habit would be classified as:

A. suffering from antisocial personality disorder

B. adult antisocial behavior

C. a schizotypal personality

D. a sociopath

B. disregard for the truth

C. an adult and adolescent history of antisocial behavior

D. reckless and impulsive behavior

41. According to Cleckley, antisocial personalities are are different from the "normal" criminal because they:

A. take advantage of others

B. have no concerns about breaking the law

C. are not motivated by any understandable purpose

D. are driven by delusions and hallucinations to commit crimes

42. Cleckley's subjective portrait of antisocial personalities includes which of the following?

A. They lack the empathy to appreciate other people's pain.

B. They appear to be aware of the connection between their actions and the consequences of their actions.

C. They exhibit a full range of emotions including guilt and remorse.

D. Their misdeeds are often purposeful and carefully planned.

43. Pathological gambling is believed to go through three phases. What is phase one?

A. winning

B. losing

C. "chasing"

D. desperation

44. In DSM-IV, conduct disorder is the heading under which one finds the behavior we call:

A. juvenile delinquency

B. impulse-control problems

C. psychopathy

D. separation-individuation

45. Which statement about conduct disorder and antisocial personality is true?

A. Most teenagers with conduct disorder grow up to be antisocial personalities.

B. Conduct disorder that begins after age 15 is the best predictor of adult antisocial personality disorder.

C. All antisocial personalities were once teenagers with conduct disorder.

D. Conduct disorder before 15 rules out the chances for antisocial personality disorder in adulthood.

46. What is the term psychodynamic theorists use for personality disorders?

A. character disorders

B. histrionic disorders

C. anomic disorders

D. avoidant disorders

47. A psychoanalyst is seeing a person with a severe personality disorder such as antisocial personality. The analyst will assume that:

A. lack of parental modeling and consistent discipline caused the problem

B. problems in the separation-individuation process caused the disorder

C. sexual conflicts late in development (after the oedipal period) caused the disorder

D. the core of the problem is an ego that is too strong and an id that is too weak

48. According to the psychodynamic perspective, character disorders are defined by:

A. a pattern of distorted or weakened ego function

B. early parental deprivation

C. poor reinforcement histories

D. fixation at the genital stage

49. In psychodynamic theory, narcissistic personality disorder is to ________ as antisocial personality disorder is to _______.

A. inadequate defense mechanisms; excessive defense mechanisms

B. weakened superego controls; excessive superego controls

C. wounded self-esteem; failure of superego controls

D. regression; repression

50. Psychodynamic therapies for antisocial personalities rarely work because such patients:

A. respond better to drug therapy

B. lack insight and the desire to change

C. often cannot verbalize their thoughts

D. usually suffer from additional disorders

51. According to the text, many behaviorists would object to the very concept of personality disorder because the classification:

A. has low reliability

B. has low validity

C. implies the existence of mental illness

D. implies fixed traits

B. organic disturbance

C. family dysfunction

D. hormonal imbalance

B. modeling

C. noncontingent reinforcement

D. passive avoidance learning

B. narcissistic

C. borderline

D. obsessive-compulsive
 
 

55. Which perspective views personality disorders as the product of distortions or exaggerations in the schemas we develop?

A. psychodynamic

B. behavioral

C. cognitive

D. sociocultural

B. behavioral

C. sociocultural

D. psychodynamic

57. Which of the following statements about physiological abnormalities in antisocial personalities is true?

A. Between 90 and 95 percent of all antisocial personalities show some form of EEG abnormality.

B. The concordance rate for criminal behavior is about 50 percent for MZ twins but only about 25 percent for DZ twins.

C. Most antisocial personalities show the XYY chromosome anomaly.

D. In antisocial personalities the cerebral cortex is frequently overdeveloped.

58. If the antisocial personality has an immature cerebral cortex, what mental function seems to be impaired?

A. the ability to take in information from the eyes and ears simultaneously

B. an inability to lower arousal when it is necessary

C. a reduced capacity to experience fear

D. lower intelligence related to visual-motor performance

59. The autonomic nervous system of the antisocial personality:

A. is typically not responsive to drug therapies

B. shows no deficient operations

C. shows a higher level of arousal than in the normal person

D. shows a lower level of arousal than in the normal person

60. Childhood psychological disorders are different from adult disorders in that:

A. children do not experience intense emotional distress

B. age is crucial to the assessment of childhood disorders

C. there are relatively clear-cut lines dividing "normal" and "abnormal" in childhood

D. children are less dependent upon and responsive to their social environment

61. Admission rates to mental health clinics begin to increase at age six or seven because

A. school entry is stressful

B. this marks the beginning of the latency period in psychodynamic theory

C. children are first able to identify themselves as having a disorder at that age

D. parents tend to be more prone to identify problems than teachers

62. How is gender related to childhood psychological disorder?

A. It isn't: boys and girls have the same likelihood of developing the same disorders

B. Boys are more prone to having disruptive disorders; girls are more likely to have those involving emotional distress

C. Boys are more likely to have problems before adolescence, girls are more likely to have problems during adolescence

D. Until age 14, there is no gender difference; after 14, girls have more problems

B. learning and communication disorders

C. disruptive behavior disorders

D. motor disorders

64. Which of the following childhood problems tends to persist into adulthood?

A. bedwetting

B. antisocial behavior

C. speech difficulties

D. phobia

65. Statistics concerning children and poverty, homelessness, and health insurance suggest that:

A. fewer children than ever before are exposed to environmental stressors

B. the crucial reason for childhood psychological disturbance is hereditary, not environmental

C. environmental stressors are no more serious a problem than they were 40 years ago

D. there is a great need to prevent the environmental stressors that affect a large minority of American children

66. Outcome studies have found that psychotherapy with children is:

A. about as successful as it is with adults

B. more helpful for boys than for girls

C. much less successful than it is with adults

D. helpful for school problems, only

B. learning disorders

C. disruptive behavior disorders

D. habit disorders

B. enuresis

C. dyslexia

D. separation anxiety disorder

69. Which statement about ADHD is accurate?

A. About as many girls have ADHD as boys.

B. Somewhere between 3 and 5 percent of elementary school children are said to have ADHD.

C. Although children with ADHD have trouble focusing their attention, their school performance is rarely impaired.

D. ADHD affects school work but has little impact on social functioning or family life.

B. seems purposeless and disorganized

C. shows intense concentration

D. is more likely to occur in the presence of others than when alone

71. The DSM-IV divides ADHD into subcategories. Those subcategories are:

A. predominantly inattentive; predominantly hyperactive/impulsive; combined

B. early onset; late onset

C. associated with conduct disorder; associated with drug abuse; non-associated

D. hyperactive; impulsive

72. Recent studies about the developmental course of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder suggest that:

A. most children grow out of the disorder by adolescence

B. the disorder continues into adolescence

C. cognitive problems tend to disappear, while behavior problems continue into adulthood

D. ADHD girls are more likely to develop conduct disorders than are ADHD boys

73. In order to be diagnosed with a conduct disorder, a child must:

A. show a persistent rebelliousness toward parents and teachers

B. be inattentive, impulsive, and restless for a period of at least two years

C. have committed at least three infractions such as theft and fighting in the last year

D. show poor school adjustment regardless of whether he/she acts in an aggressive or destructive manner
 
 

B. conduct disorder and separation anxiety disorder

C. ADHD and conduct disorder

D. ADHD and depression

75. Moffitt's theory of antisocial behavior in adolescents emphasizes:

A. the value of looking at delinquency in adolescence

B. the idea that all delinquency is normative and temporary

C. the biological differences between persistent and temporary delinquents

D. the fact that late-onset delinquency is a strong predictor of criminal behavior in adulthood.

76. Crime statistics show which of the following statements to be true?

A. The rate of violent crime by juveniles increased by more than 25 percent from 1982 to 1992.

B. Crime rates rise slowly from age 13 to 18, hit a peak at age 25 and slowly decrease through the 30s.

B. habit disorders

C. anxiety disorders

D. eating disorders

78. According to the text, all of the following are characteristic of separation anxiety except:

A. it occurs in boys more frequently than in girls

B. it may appear at any time during childhood

C. parent-child conflicts are common

D. children with this disorder tend to have few or no friends

79. Constant worry is to ________ as severe shyness when around strangers is to ________.

A. separation anxiety disorder; sleep disorder

B. separation anxiety disorder; social phobia

C. childhood depression; social phobia

D. generalized anxiety disorder; social phobia

80. Unlike children with separation anxiety disorder, children with social phobia:

A. often have good relationships with their parents

B. often do quite well academically

C. tend to be somewhat more social with their peers

D. tend to "warm up" after prolonged contact with a person

B. separation anxiety disorder

C. bulimia nervosa

D. childhood depression

82. Which of the following is true about depression in children?

A. It is often a clear-cut disorder as it is in adults.

B. Depression is often expressed by refusal to attend school and exaggerated fears.

C. The incidence of childhood depression is highest under the age of 12 and undergoes a rapid decline in adolescence.

D. Adolescent boys are much more likely to be depressed than adolescent girls.
 
 
 
 
 
 

83. Depression in adolescence:

A. takes the form of clinging to parents and school refusal

B. is more common in boys than in girls

C. may be expressed as a behavior problem

D. does not show stability into adulthood

B. bulimia

C. enuresis

D. anorexia

85. Which statement about anorexia nervosa is accurate?

A. Roughly 5 percent of teenage girls have anorexia, but the prevalence of the disorder is dropping quickly.

B. Almost as many boys have anorexia as do girls.

C. Unlike most psychological disorders, anorexia can lead to chronic illness and death.

D. In most cases, the onset of anorexia is between the ages of 7 and 10.

B. social phobia

C. anorexia

D. amenorrhea

87. There are two types of anorexia:

A. early onset and late onset

B. positive body image and negative body image

C. restricting and binge-eating/purge

D. underweight and overweight

88. Anorexics and bulimics are alike in which of the following ways?

A. they have amenorrhea

B. they usually eat huge quantities of high-caloric foods

C. they based their self-esteem on their body shape

D. they look emaciated

89. Enuresis is to ________ as encopresis is to ________.

A. disruptive behavior; habit disorder

B. rare; common

C. males; females

D. bladder control; bowel control

90. Which of the following statements about enuresis is true?

A. In primary enuresis, bladder control has been achieved and is later abandoned.

B. Enuresis is less common in boys than in girls.

C. Secondary enuresis is usually transient.

D. Primary enuresis usually occurs in response to extreme stress.

91. According to the text, which of the following is most likely to lead to secondary enuresis?

A. birth of a sibling

B. going on vacation

C. childhood depression

D. having encopresis

92. Which of the following statements about encopresis is true?

A. Encopresis is much rarer than enuresis.

B. Encopresis is regarded as a less serious disturbance than enuresis.

C. Primary encopresis is less common in boys than in girls.

D. Secondary encopresis is almost always genetically caused.

93. Probably the most common response to stress in early childhood is:

A. eating disorder

B. encopresis

C. sleep disturbance

D. depression

94. Night terrors are marked by:

A. violent motor activity

B. REM activity

C. loss of bladder control

D. decreased autonomic arousal

95. Which of the following accurately describes the difference between nightmares and night terrors

C. Nightmares are much rarer and more frightening than night terrors.

A. Nightmares occur in non-REM sleePage:

B. Night terrors are generally restricted to children.

C. Nightmares are difficult to recall in any detail.

D. Night terrors are usually associated with parental conflict prior to bedtime.

97. The learning disorders comprise three categories:

A. reading, writing, and math

B. visual, auditory, and tactile

C. music, art, and language

D. early onset, middle onset, and late onset

98. The specific difficulty in dyslexia is:

A. arithmetic

B. articulation

C. reading

D. memory

99. Diagnosis of learning disorders is made more difficult by the fact that:

A. they are extremely rare disorders

B. symptoms of mental retardation, brain damage, and conduct disorder overlap with learning disorders

C. both a and b

D. neither a nor b

B. stress-related

C. neurological

D. environmentally induced

101. Stuttering, articulation disorder, and receptive language delays are all examples of:

A. learning disorders

B. communication disorders

C. dyslexias

D. disruptive behavior disorders
 
 
 
 
 
 

102. A delay in which type of language process may have the most serious and long-lasting consequences?

A. articulation

B. receptive

C. expressive

D. calculative

103. With regard to stuttering, most theorists agree that:

A. it is more common in girls than in boys

B. it usually has an organic basis

C. children rarely outgrow the problem

D. anxiety is important in creating, maintaining, and aggravating the disorder

104. Two rather common childhood disorders seem to clear themselves up naturally as long as parents do not increase the child's

anxiety by worrying about the condition or denigrating the child. Which of the following are those two disorders?

A. depression and separation anxiety disorder

B. anorexia and dyslexia

C. secondary enuresis and stuttering

D. articulation disorder and ADHD

105. According to the text, which of the following perspectives has given the most attention to the theory and treatment of the

A. sociocultural

B. behavioral

C. psychodynamic

D. humanistic-existential

106. According to psychodynamic therapists, regression best explains which of the following disorders?

A. secondary enuresis

B. bulimia

C. dyslexia

D. attention deficit hyperactivity disorder

107. Drawing materials and toys are used in ________ by therapists who agree with the ________ perspective.

A. modeling therapy; behavioral

B. play therapy; psychodynamic

C. cognitive restructuring therapy; cognitive

D. play therapy; sociocultural

108. The humanistic-existential treatment of childhood disorders is most similar to which other perspective?

A. psychodynamic

B. behavioral

C. family

D. biological

109. Systematic desensitization, modeling, and the reinforcement for positive behaviors are all ________ therapies used with


children.

A. behavioral

B. interpersonal

C. cognitive

D. humanistic

110. A behavior therapist is treating a teen age girl with anorexia. Which technique is most likely to be effective?

A. challenging the girl to think of other ways of attaining self-esteem without becoming thin

B. encouraging the girl to resist her parents@ unreasonable restrictions without using starvation

C. using systematic desensitization to reduce the level of anxiety the girl has about dieting

D. making attention from others and hospital privileges contingent on eating

110. Theorists of which perspective argue that childhood disorders can result from negative beliefs, faulty attributions, and poor


problem solving skills?

A. cognitive

B. psychodynamic

C. behavioral

D. family

111. Superficial closeness, rigid family rules, and complex triangular relationships are some of the concepts a ________ therapist

A. psychodynamic

B. behavioral

C. humanistic-existential

D. family

113. Family therapy seems to be particularly effective for which of the following disorders?

A. enuresis

B. conduct disorder

C. anorexia

D. attention deficit hyperactivity disorder

114. Support for the sociocultural approach to childhood disorder comes from research showing that:

A. anorexia is a disorder with the same prevalence the world over

B. almost one-third of children who have been abused show brain damage

C. children who show early onset of conduct disorder engage in adult criminal behavior

D. "overcontrolled" children are more commonly seen in Thai culture than in American culture

115. All of the following social factors are related to child abuse except:

A. parental unemployment

B. general level of social violence

C. prevalence of psychotic disorders

D. poverty

116. Of all the childhood disorders discussed in the text, the disorder that seems most likely to have a biological basis is:

A. articulation disorder

B. attention deficit hyperactivity disorder

C. separation anxiety disorder

D. bulimia nervosa

117. Recent research that high levels of neuropeptide Y are found in the cerebrospinal fluid of ________ supports a biological


component to the disorder.

A. bulimics

B. anorexics

C. childhood depressives

D. juvenile delinquents

118. Which statement about Dexedrine and Ritalin is true?

A. Only about 2 percent of children with ADHD benefit from these drugs.

B. Since these are stimulant drugs, they make children with ADHD even more "hyper."

C. About three-quarters of ADHD show dramatic improvement on these drugs.

D. Roughly 50 percent of ADHD children who take these drugs become physically dependent upon them.

118. The American Association on Mental Retardation (AAMR) uses three criteria to define mental retardation. One is having

A. autistic aloneness and onset after age 18

B. limitations in adaptive skills and onset before 18

C. lack of emotional control and physical-motor impairments

D. organic cause and onset before 18

120. Statistics on the prevalence of mental retardation:

A. are well-established

B. are estimated at 10 percent of the population

C. are estimated at about 1 percent of the population

D. have never been estimated
 
 

121. The largest number of mentally retarded individuals fall into the category of __________ retardation.

A. mild

B. severe

C. profound

D. moderate

122. Tay-Sachs, Down syndrome, and fragile X are all examples of mental retardation that:

A. have a congenital cause

B. lead to mild retardation

C. are genetically determined

D. are associated with poverty

123. The most common genetic cause of mental retardation is more of a factor in males than females. This form of retardation is

A. phenylketonuria (PKU)

B. Down syndrome

C. fragile X syndrome

D. trisomy 21 syndrome

124. Amniocentesis has identified the existence of trisomy 21 in a developing fetus. The mother will be advised that her baby will:

A. be stillborn

B. have Down syndrome

C. have Tay-Sachs disease

D. have fragile X syndrome

125. Together, _______ account for one-fourth of all cases of mental retardation.

A. brain injury and lead poisoning

B. Tay-Sachs disease and phenylketonuria

C. Down syndrome and drug abuse

D. Down syndrome and fragile X syndrome

126. Amniocentesis is:

A. the genetic phenomenon that explains why the X chromosome can become fragile

B. the condition in which phenylalanine cannot be adequately metabolized

C. the medical procedure by which chromosome abnormalities in a fetus can be detected

D. the process by which DNA samples of the mother are matched with those of the child

127. Dietary restrictions starting in infancy can minimize central nervous system damage for which of the following disorders?


A. phenylketonuria (PKU)

B. Down syndrome

C. lead poisoning

D. fragile X syndrome

128. Which of the following is an untreatable metabolic disorder that causes progressive deterioration and an early death, and is

A. rubella

B. PKU

C. fragile X syndrome

D. Tay-Sachs disease

129. Which of the following causes of mental retardation is untreatable and fatal before age 6?

A. phenylketonuria (PKU)

B. Down syndrome

C. fragile X syndrome

D. Tay-Sachs disease

130. Which of the following is not a cause of congenital retardation?

A. rubella

B. thyroxine deficiency

C. phenylketonuria (PKU)

D. syphilis

131. Why is it difficult to say that mental retardation in cocaine-exposed babies is caused by the cocaine their mothers used?

A. there is no evidence that babies prenatally addicted to cocaine are different from other infants

B. cocaine cannot pass from the mother to the unborn infant

C. many of the "crack-addicted" babies are actually victims of fragile X syndrome

D. cocaine-addicted mothers are unlikely to provide the stimulation infants need

132. Insufficient myelination of nerve fibers leads to mental retardation. What is a likely cause of insufficient myelination?

A. fragile X syndrome

B. malnutrition

C. rubella

D. physical trauma

133. One of the most common toxins to affect the brain after birth is:

A. DPT vaccine

B. lead

C. syphilis

D. thyroxine

134. If the mother has high blood pressure, or the umbilical cord ruptures during the birth process, or anesthesia is improperly

A. hypoxia

B. aphasia

C. hypoglycemia

D. myelination

135. In the absence of an identifiable physical cause, mild mental retardation can be caused by:

A. brain plasticity

B. myelination

C. living in a deprived setting

D. fixation at the oral stage

136. One of the major themes of the 1994 Carnegie Corporation report on the intellectual needs of young children is that:

A. mental retardation that does not involve a physical cause is actually pseudo- retardation

B. psychological factors that deprive a young child of cognitive growth become organic factors

C. mental retardation is a significant risk to children regardless of the socioeconomic status of their parents

D. initial cognitive deficits can be overcome as long as treatment is provided before age 18

137. Deficits in cognitive development due to emotional disturbance in impoverished children are called:

A. infantile autism

B. traumatic retardation

C. pseudo-retardation

D. insufficient myelination

138. The physical structure and function of the infant's brain is influenced by experiences in the world. This ability to change is


referred to as:

A. brain plasticity

B. individuation

C. myelination

D. pseudo-retardation

139. Which statement about teenage mothers is accurate?

A. Although there are many unmarried teen mothers, few go on welfare.

B. Teen mothers are no less responsive to their infants than adult mothers.

C. Mild mental retardation is more frequent in adolescent mothers than adult mothers.

D. Compared to other industrialized nations, the United States has one of the lowest teen pregnancy rates.

139. A child has a normal IQ. His parents die suddenly and he is placed in an institution. Based on research cited in the text, his IQ

A. increase same

B. decrease

C. stay the same

D. decline initially, then increase

141. All of the following are reasons that retarded people might develop an emotional disturbance except:

A. they are essentially treated like children

B. they have special privileges because of their condition

C. they see themselves fail as others succeed

D. many people in society avoid them

142. A clinician treats his client's intellectual deficits but virtually ignores the depression the patient also feels. The clinician is

A. diagnostic overshadowing

B. inverted treatment priorities

C. symptomatic eclipsing

D. an inability to make a dual diagnosis

143. All of the following are characteristics of good counseling practice for people with mental retardation except:

A. appreciating that people with retardation are aware of their limitations

B. remaining silent when the client lapses into silence

C. creating a positive attitude that will lead to trust

D. "mirroring" the client's feelings

144. The disorder autism was so named because of the belief that the primary symptom of the disorder is:

A. the inability to relate to anyone outside oneself

B. the obsessive desire to preserve sameness

C. poor or absent language functions

D. bizarre hallucinations

145. Lorna Wing has proposed a subdivision of autism into three categories. They are:

A. easy, difficult, slow-to-warm

B. aloof, passive, active-but-odd

C. early onset, middle onset, late onset

D. acute, chronic, mixed

146. Chuckie has been diagnosed as suffering from autism. He would be expected to have all of the following symptoms except:

A. stereotyped behaviors

B. severe language deficits

C. significant cognitive impairment

D. an excessive need for change in the environment

147. Which statement best describes the intellectual level of most autistic children?

A. superior

B. above average

C. average

D. mentally retarded

148. An autistic child is given an intelligence test. On which type of subtest is he likely to do best?

A. reading comprehension

B. verbal expression

C. sensorimotor ability

D. social interaction

149. The best predictor of recovery from autism is:

A. the child's facility with language

B. the amount of stereotyped behavior observed

C. whether the child comes from a single-parent household

D. whether the child shows the aloof or passive subtype of autism

150. Repetitive stereotyped behaviors and the demand for sameness in the environment are indicators that autistic children are:

A. able to focus their attention quite narrowly

B. much more intelligent than they appear on IQ tests

C. quite similar to obsessive-compulsive children in cognitive style

D. are more cognitively advanced than other children their age

151. Edgar is an autistic child who sits in a corner and rocks his body for hours at a time. This rocking activity serves what purpose?

A. attention-seeking

B. self-destruction

C. self-stimulation

D. anxiety control

152. One theory of autism has been repudiated by research and rejected by all professionals. That theory is:

A. the cognitive view that autism is a problem of sensory overselection.

B. the psychodynamic view that autism is caused by rejecting parents

C. the biological view that autism is a genetic disorder

D. the biological view that autism is caused by birth complications

153. Research in Sweden and the United States has looked at the incidence of autism in the extended families of autistic children. The


research shows that:

A. there is evidence of inheritance playing a role in the disorder

B. there is a clear diathesis that is triggered by the stress of poor family communications

C. autism is associated with major depressive disorder

D. there is no reason to believe inheritance plays a role in the disorder

154. High levels of which of the following neurotransmitters has been linked to autism?

A. dopamine

B. Neuropeptide Y

C. norepinephrine

D. acetylcholine

154. An autistic child accidentally ingests diet pills containing an amphetamine-like substance. Based on research presented in the


text, what effect is this likely to have on the child's behavior?

A. decreased self-mutilation and repetitive motions

B. increased likelihood of making eye contact with others

C. increased hyperactivity and ritualistic behavior

D. depressed emotional state

155. Evidence shows that March and August are months in which the rate of autistic births is unusually high. This suggests that the

A. related to hypoxia and other at-birth complications

B. related to barometric pressure and air temperature

C. influenced by an infectious agent

D. a randomly-occurring event

157. Which of the following is a congenital factor in autism?

A. rubella infection

B. cold and aloof parents

C. fragile X syndrome

D. excessive oxygen at birth

158. An autistic child undergoes a neurological examination. It is likely that this examination will reveal:

A. normal EEGs

B. normal ERPs

C. above average muscle tone and coordination

D. the examination will reveal none of the above

159. Autopsies of autistic brains find that:

A. most autistics are missing large portions of the left hemisphere

B. have extensive scar tissue in the frontal and temporal lobes

C. have larger and greater numbers of dendrites than normal brains

D. have abnormalities in the limbic system and cerebellum
 
 
 
 

160. Cognitive theorists believe that the primary defect of autistic children centers around:

A. the inability to interact with other people

B. a reduced ability to comprehend, imitate, be flexible, and use information

C. neurological abnormalities involving the right cerebral hemisphere

D. inadequate learning of basic skills

161. A child appears severely retarded but has the ability to play, on the piano, any piece of music he has heard once. This ability

A. a schizophrenic

B. a savant

C. normal

4. brain damaged

161. An autistic child spends hours tracing the pattern of a tile on the kitchen floor in his home. From a cognitive perspective, this

A. basically aphasics

B. underselective in their attention

C. overselective in their attention

D. undersensitive to sounds

163. The "theory of the mind" explanation for autism:

A. suggests that autistic children are better able to empathize with other people than normal children

B. argues that autistics can only think abstractly and cannot get the practical business of living figured out

C. fully explains why autistics are good at some abstract tasks and poor at others

D. probably only explains the subgroup of autistics that develop the disorder after the first year of life

164. "Mainstreaming" children with mental retardation means:

A. placing them in special classrooms in the public schools

B. providing special schools that teach them how to earn a living in mainstream society

C. including them in regular public school classrooms

D. allowing them to live in public housing

165. A mildly retarded adult lives in a small group home in which supervision is provided only in the evening. He most likely lives in

A. supported living arrangement (SLA)

B. community living facility (CLF)

C. intermediate-care facility (ICF)

D. mainstream state institution (MSI)

166. According to the text, one of the most complex issues to deal with for the mentally retarded adult is:

A. sexuality

B. employment

C. social adjustment

D. income

167. The present attitude toward the sexuality of the retarded is reflected in the fact that:

A. mentally retarded people cannot legally marry in the United States

B. most states have laws that require the sterilization of people with retardation

C. programs exist to teach "dating skills," and, with assistance, mildly retarded adults can marry and maintain themselves well

D. sexual behavior for all retarded individuals is encouraged

168. According to the text, a major reason that retarded people are fired from jobs is that they:

A. lack motivation

B. lack social skills

C. have deficient attention spans

D. have no ability to perform the work

169. Amniocentesis, genetic counseling, and drug treatment for crack-addicted women of childbearing age are all ________ efforts to

A. early intervention

B. prevention

C. educational

D. self-instructional

170. The Avance program serves Mexican-American families in San Antonio, Texas. Which statement below is true about Avance?

A. It is a two-year program to teach mothers how to interact with their children and how to improve their employment chances.

B. It is an educational program to show the value of low phenylalanine diets for young children.

C. It is a school-based program for severely retarded children which mainstreams them in the classroom.

4. It is an exercise and sports program for Down syndrome children so they can improve their health and gain social skills by

171. Public Law 94-142 guarantees to every citizen under the age of 21:

A. a job appropriate to his or her intellectual and social level

B. housing in the least restrictive environment

C. a free public education appropriate to her or his needs

D. free individualized treatment in an outpatient setting

172. The Supreme Court's ruling in Board of Education of the Hendrick Hudson School District v. Rowley, suggests:

A. that the full needs of children with retardation will be met by public schools throughout the country

B. that only a basic floor of opportunity in the education system must be provided by public schools

C. that mainstreaming will soon be considered illegal

4. that all teachers will be required to obtain sufficient training to provide special education opportunities to even the most severely

173. A speech therapist is using behavior therapy with a retarded child. She makes a sound and the child imitates it. At first she

A. chaining

B. shaping

C. token economy

D. fading

174. According to the text, all of the following are major behavioral treatment techniques used with autistic children except:

A. punishment

B. self-instructional training

C. extinction

D. direct reinforcement

175. An autistic child's therapist has advised his parents to ignore him whenever he throws a tantrum. The behavioral technique being


used is:

A. direct reinforcement

B. symptom substitution

C. extinction

D. punishment

176. A child is hooked up to a training machine for an hour a day over ten days while listening to specially selected music. The goal

A. facilitated communication

B. educational mainstreaming

C. perceptual patterning

D. auditory training

177. All of the following are controversial treatments for autism that have shown inconsistent results except:

A. fenfluramine

B. shaping

C. facilitated communication

D. auditory training