PSYC 4720-01 ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
Spring Semester, 1999 – Dr. G.L. Kandel
EXAM 3 – March 17, 1999
Library Pool Questions
1. The course of a major depressive episode is usually characterized by:
A. very slow onset but quick recovery
B. a rapid onset, duration of a day or two, and rapid recovery
C. gradual onset and duration of several weeks or months
D. a very rapid onset but a duration that can last for a lifetime
2. After Lucy was rejected from a Ph.D. program she hoped to enter, she lost all pleasure in her studies, developed insomnia, and began saying that she should never have applied to the graduate program since she was a stupid and untalented person. Lucy was exhibiting symptoms of:
A. bipolar I
B. bipolar II
C. depression
D. schizophrenia
3. Which of the following is most characteristic of a major depressive episode?
A. irritability
B. hopelessness
C. weight gain
D. reckless behavior
4. "I am depressed and I always will be. Other people may benefit from treatment, but not me." These thoughts illustrate the depressive syndrome called:
A. anomie
B. cyclothymic
C. anhedonia
D. helplessness-hopelessness
5. "Loss of pleasure or interest in usual activities" is the definition of:
A. cyclothymia
B. anhedonia
C. melancholia
D. anomie
6. A depressed person who seems overcome by fatigue, moves slowly, and rarely talks or gestures is suffering from __________ depression.
A. retarded
B. anhedonic
C. agitated
D. anomic
7. Andy is depressed yet he seems full of restless energy. He constantly paces through his apartment, wringing his hands and moaning about his sorrows. Andy is experiencing __________ depression.
A. retarded
B. anhedonic
C. cyclothymic
D. agitated
8. Depression may be characterized by all of the following except:
A. agitation
B. guilt feelings
C. difficulties in thinking
D. reckless behavior
9. The depressed person's thinking is usually:
A. coherent and obsessive
B. slowed and poor in concentration
C. speeded up but suicidal
D. negative but excellent in concentration
10. Which of the following is not characteristic of the typical manic person?
A. feelings of worthlessness
B. distractibility
C. reckless behavior
D. talkativeness
11. A person who has brief manic episodes that are less severe than a full-fledged manic episode is said to have a condition called:
A. cyclothymia
B. hypomanic episode
C. anhedonia
12. Rick is a new client at a community outpatient clinic. His therapist explains to Rick that he is suffering a disorder that occurs sometime in the lives of 17 percent of Americans and accounts for between 12 and 48 percent of all private physicians' patients What disorder has Rick's therapist diagnosed?
A. bipolar disorder
B. schizophrenia
C. major depression
D. mania
13. Which of the following statements about major depression is true?
A. The prevalence of major depression is declining.
B. The incidence of depression among young people has decreased.
C. The incidence of depression is higher in women than in men.
D. The incidence of major depression is highest in married individuals.
14. Depression can have different symptoms at different developmental stages. In infancy a striking feature is ________; in adolescence it is ________.
A. failure to eat; sulkiness and negativism
B. failure to sleep; excessive sleep
C. anger and fussiness; inactivity and apathy
D. failure to be comforted by mother; psychomotor retardation
15. According to the text, at least __________ percent of first episodes of major depression are followed by a second episode.
A. 10
B. 25
C. 50
D. 80
16. What does "premorbid adjustment" mean?
A. the adjustment people make to feeling depressed
B. the symptoms that are apparent at the beginning of a manic episode
C. family members' style of interaction that brings on a depressive episode
D. the level of functioning that one shows prior to a disorder's onset
17. Which statement about bipolar disorder is accurate?
A. The onset of bipolar disorder usually occurs after age 30.
B. Typically bipolar disorder involves manic episodes without any depression.
C. Most people with bipolar disorder have normal intervals between or after cycles of mania and depression.
D. There is only one pattern for bipolar disorder: mania, followed by depression, followed by a short, normal interval.
18. Unlike major depression, in bipolar disorder:
A. there is no gender difference in prevalence of the disorder.
B. single and widowed individuals are more at risk for the disorder.
C. people with a history of low self-esteem are at high risk for the disorder.
D. episodes of depression are longer and involve less sleeping.
19. The DSM-IV has divided bipolar disorder into bipolar I disorder and bipolar II disorder. How are they different?
A. In bipolar I, there is no manic episode; in bipolar II there is.
B. In bipolar I, there is a manic episode; in bipolar II the "high" never reaches manic levels.
C. In bipolar I, the depression is severe; in bipolar II the "low" never reaches a severe level.
D. In bipolar I, there are several depressive episodes; in bipolar II there is only one.
20. Mild, persistent depression is called:
A. anhedonia
B. melancholia
C. dysthymia
D. cyclothymia
21. Dysthymia is to major depression as ________ is to bipolar disorder.
A. cyclothymia
B. rapid-cycling
C. mania
D. psychosis
22. One factor distinguishing psychotic mania and depression from milder forms of these disorders is the presence of:
A. sleep impairment
B. irritability
C. delusions
D. eating disturbances
23. The continuity hypothesis argues that:
A. people with mood disorders continue to have problems throughout their lifetimes.
B. hallucinations and other psychotic conditions only occur in those with bipolar disorder.
C. normal, sad moods and psychotic depression are different points on a single continuum.
D. once people reach a level of psychotic depression, they are likely to have bipolar disorder as well.
24. There seem to be two environmental factors that predict relapse and recovery in depression. They are:
A. losses of interpersonal ties and social support
B. economic security and adequate housing
C. family history of disorder and adequate diet
D. childhood role models and economic security
25. Keith's mother was 17 when she had her first depressive episode. Research suggests that Keith:
A. has a lower likelihood of developing depression than the general population
B. will become depressed himself before the age of 17
C. has a higher risk of depression than if his mother's depression onset had been after she was 30
D. is more likely to develop cyclothymia or bipolar disorder than a major depressive disorder
26. One piece of evidence supporting the idea that endogenous depression is more biogenic than reactive depression is that people classified with endogenous depression are:
A. more likely to have a family history of depression
B. more likely to respond to electroconvulsive therapy
C. less likely to have sleep disorders
D. less likely to have psychomotor retardation
27. When anxiety and depression occur at the same time, there is evidence of:
A. comorbidity
B. psychotic disorder
C. cyclothymia
D. greater suicidal thinking
28. Decreased energy, poor social skills, repetitive rumination and obsessions, indecisiveness, and crying are all symptoms found in:
A. depression alone
B. bipolar disorder alone
C. anxiety alone
D. both anxiety and depression
29. Which of the following statements is accurate regarding suicidal behavior?
A. Eight more men attempt suicide for every woman who attempts it.
B. It is very rare for adolescents who commit suicide to have been depressed before the fatal attempt.
C. About eight people attempt suicide for every one who commits suicide.
D. The United States has the highest suicide rate in the world.
30. Suzanne is a 35-year-old Caucasian housewife who, as a result of her depression, overdoses on barbiturates. This description is:
A. representative of the modal suicide commiter
B. representative of the modal suicide attempter
C. unusual in that most women choose more violent methods of suicide
D. unusual in that suicide is more likely in women who are younger
31. Which of the following represents the "modal suicide commiter?"
A. Nancy, a 19-year-old depressed mother of two.
B. Greg, a 23-year-old single, unemployed man.
C. Brenda, a 35-year-old Caucasian housewife.
D. Jack, a 50-year-old Caucasian depressed because he has cancer.
32. Which of the following represents a shift in suicide-related demographic variables in recent years?
A. Suicide rates among men over 60 have decreased.
B. Suicide rates among men between 15 and 34 have decreased.
C. Younger men are more likely to kill themselves than older men.
D. Men are less likely to use violent methods of suicide than women.
33. Which of the following statements about teenage suicide is accurate?
A. Most adolescents who attempt suicide have families that are highly supportive.
B. Most adolescents who commit suicide have been in psychological counseling for a long time.
C. Adolescent suicide attempters often have a history of substance abuse and family psychiatric disorder.
D. Adolescent suicide is much less common now than it was 30 years ago.
34. According to Shneidman there is a "suicidal scenario" that includes all of the following except:
A. a desperate feeling of hopelessness
B. an unbearable feeling of psychological pain
C. a belief that suicide is only one of several options available
D. a constriction of thinking that unrealistically narrows one@s actions
35. Which statement about suicide attempters is accurate?
A. All attempters feel complete despair.
B. Most suicide attempters leave notes filled with hope for a better life.
C. About two-thirds of attempters do not really wish to die.
D. Nearly 90 percent of attempters are completely determined to die.
36. Which of the following is probably the best way to prevent suicide?
A. school-based programs targeting adolescent girls
B. telephone hotlines
C. reducing access to psychological care
D. attacking substance abuse and teen pregnancy
37. Early psychoanalytic theorists believed that depression was the result of:
A. anger turned inward
B. insufficient reinforcement
C. organic dysfunction
D. living an unauthentic life
38. Recent research testing the validity of psychodynamic assumptions about depression has demonstrated that depressives are more likely than others to:
A. have suffered separation from a parent through family conflict
B. demonstrate a low level of social dependency
C. have experienced the death of a parent at a young age
D. feel ambivalent towards family members
39. A therapist believes her patient attempted suicide because he really wanted to kill his mother, who abandoned him as a child, and whose image he has incorporated into himself. This therapist is expressing which perspective on suicide?
A. sociocultural
B. behavioral
C. psychodynamic
D. humanistic-existential
40. Psychodynamic theory of depression is to ________ as humanistic-existential theory is to ________.
A. loss; inauthentic existence
B. loss; irrational beliefs
C. sexuality; substance abuse
D. extinction of competence; reinforcement of loneliness
41. Existentialists view depression as a reaction to:
A. lack of reinforcement
B. an unauthentic existence
C. a superficial society
D. feelings of dependency
42. Humanistic-existential therapists try to help depressed and suicidal patients by:
A. teaching them how to improve their social skills
B. showing them that, in order to be loved, they must play the roles that others expect of them
C. showing them that depression and grief are really the same phenomenon
D. leading them to discover that pursing one's own goals is vital.
43. Many behaviorists view depression as a:
A. function of too much reinforcement
B. result of intolerable anger
C. result of internalization
D. function of inadequate or insufficient reinforcers
44. Social-skills training is the ________ way of treating depression; ________ is the cognitive therapist's way of treating depression.
A. humanistic-existentialist's; medication
B. behaviorist's; reattribution training
C. behaviorist's; empathy
D. psychodynamic therapist's; reattribution training
45. Cognitive theorists believe that depression results from:
A. the way a person thinks about himself or herself
B. modeling
C. anger turned inward
D. an excessive amount of reinforcement
46. The theorist who suggested that depression may be understood as analogous to the phenomenon of learned helplessness in animals was:
A. Lewinsohn
B. Seligman
C. Beck
D. Maier
47. The difference between extinction theory and learned-helplessness theory is that extinction theory:
A. emphasizes thinking more than emotions
B. argues that depression leads to lost control
C. looks at what the person expects rather than what actually occurs
D. highlights actual losses of reinforcement in the environment
48. To make up for weaknesses in the learned helplessness model of depression, the focus has shifted from helplessness to:
A. hopelessness
B. lack of social reinforcement
C. reduced social support
49. The fact that depression is unheard of in some non-industrialized societies and that the Amish have an incidence as much as one-tenth that of people living elsewhere in the United States, supports the _______ perspective on depression.
A. behavioral
B. cognitive
C. sociocultural
D. biological
50. Research on attributional style shows that depressives:
A. who relapse in the face of stress can be predicted ahead of time
B. tend to blame negative events on the world, not on themselves
C. quickly become hopeless in the face of stress
D. tend to feel they have more control over situations than they actually do
51. Based on twin studies, if one identical twin develops bipolar disorder, the other has __________ chance of also developing the disorder.
A. greater than a 50-50
B. a 50-50
C. less than a 50-50 chance but more than a 25 percent
D. little to no
52. Recent twin studies show that ________ percent of the difference in major depression rates between identical and fraternal twins was due solely to genes.
A. about 10
B. between 10 and 20
C. about 30
D. between 40 and 45
53. Linkage analysis provides support for which perspective on depression?
A. cognitive
B. existential
C. neuroscience
D. behavioral
54. Martha has been diagnosed as suffering from seasonal affective disorder. This means that she:
A. is manic in the summer and depressed in the winter
B. is likely to respond to antidepressant medication
C. experiences depression primarily in the winter months
D. secretes less melatonin than normal during the winter
55. The success of light therapy in seasonal affective disorder suggests that SAD is related to:
A. reactive depression caused by being indoors
B. cyclothymia and bipolar disorder
C. levels of catecholamines
D. circadian rhythms
56. According to the text, hormonal imbalances appear to be particularly characteristic of __________ depressions.
A. endogenous
B. reactive
C. psychotic
D. neurotic
57. April is severely depressed and has a test performed in which her blood is monitored for cortisol levels. The test is the ________ and it is a way of detecting ________.
A. catecholamine test; bipolar versus unipolar disorder
B. dexamethasone suppression test; bipolar versus unipolar disorder
C. dexamethasone suppression test; endogenous versus exogenous depression
D. L-tryptophan test; norephinephrine versus serotonin deficiency
58. A researcher proposing that increased levels of norepinephrine produce mania while decreased levels produce depression would support which hypothesis?
A. continuity
B. catecholamine
C. REM-deprivation
D. biochemical depression
59. All of the following are substances thought to be involved in mood disorders except:
A. serotonin
B. thyroid hormone
C. norepinephrine
D. dopamine
60. Frank suffers from endogenous depression; Irving suffers from bipolar. Which drugs are most effective for each man?
A. lithium for Frank; tricyclics for Irving
B. tricyclics for Frank; lithium for Irving
C. dexamethasone for Frank; lithium for Irving
D. serotonin for Frank; norepinephrine for Irving
61. Which of the following best defines "psychosis"?
A. "A lifelong, inflexible set of traits that impairs interpersonal functioning."
B. "Disorders in which reality contact is radically impaired."
C. "A condition in which a person acts in a criminal way without remorse."
D. "A mild disorder in which anxiety or lack of emotional control is the chief feature."
62. Which of the following types of disorders is not one of the three main groups of psychoses?
A. personality
B. mood
C. schizophrenic
D. delusional
63. What label is given to the psychoses that are characterized by distortions of perception, emotions, and thoughts, and frequently are accompanied by bizarre behavior?
A. delusional disorders
B. depression
C. cognitive disorders
D. schizophrenia
64. Approximately what percent of beds in U.S. mental hospitals are occupied by actively schizophrenic people?
A. between 1 and 2 percent
B. 25 percent
C. 50 percent
D. 75 percent
65. The percentage of people in the United States who have or will have a schizophrenic episode is ________; the estimated percentage of homeless people who are schizophrenic is ________.
A. 1 to 2; 1 to 2
B. 1 to 2; 10 to 13
C. 10 to 15; 30-40
D. 10 to 15; over 50
66. The person responsible for coining the term dementia praecox was:
A. Rokeach
B. Bleuler
C. Kraepelin
D. Greisinger
67. Schizophrenia was originally called dementia praecox because of the belief that the mental deterioration:
A. began in adolescence and was irreversible
B. was organic in origin
C. was caused by stress and was irreversible
D. began with a loss of memory but was reversible
68. Eugen Bleuler was the psychiatrist who:
A. first described what we now call schizophrenia
B. suggested the term dementia praecox
C. proposed the term schizophrenia
D. first hypnotized patients and discovered the causes of mental disorders
69. Mary knows something about word etymology and reports that the word "schizophrenia" comes from the Greek words meaning "to split" and "mind." She therefore believes that schizophrenia refers to multiple personality disorder. In reality, schizophrenia refers to a "splitting" of:
A. different psychic functions in a single personality
B. the divisions of the id, ego, and superego
C. ideas from perception
D. the personality into two or more subpersonalities
70. DSM-IV lists five characteristic symptoms of schizophrenia. Which of the following is not one of the five?
A. delusions
B. disorganized speech
C. uncontrolled mood swings
D. hallucinations
71. One expert has written that the single most striking feature about schizophrenics is:
A. their peculiar use of language
B. the unpredictability of their personality changes
C. the intensity of their emotions
D. their tendency to have delusional thoughts
72. A firmly held belief with no basis in reality is a:
A. delusion
B. hallucination
C. word salad
D. neologism
73. The schizophrenic who claims that there is a conspiracy against her and believes that she is being spied on and threatened is suffering from delusions of:
A. influence
B. persecution
C. grandeur
D. reference
74. John, a schizophrenic, believes television announcers are speaking directly to him in some kind of code and that fire sirens are a signal to him about the sins he has committed. These beliefs illustrates delusions of:
A. reference
B. persecution
C. control
D. grandeur
75. Andrea asserts that she is the wife of John Kennedy, that she is the mother of Mel Gibson, and taught Michael Jordan how to play basketball. These beliefs illustrate:
A. delusions of control
B. thought broadcasting
C. delusions of grandeur
D. loose associations
76. A schizophrenic believes that beings from outer space implanted a radio device in her brain while she slept, and that they now know what she is thinking and planning to do. According to the text, this illustrates:
A. loose associations
B. delusions of reference
C. thought broadcasting
D. thought insertion and blocking
77. A nihilistic delusion is a belief that:
A. one has committed an "unpardonable" sin
B. one's thoughts are being controlled by outside forces
C. events unrelated to oneself refer specifically to oneself
D. the whole world has ceased to exist
78. A schizophrenic believes that fungus spores have been implanted in his body and now mushrooms are sprouting on his skin and throughout his gastrointestinal system. This idea would be termed a:
A. hypochondriacal delusion
B. nihilistic delusion
C. delusion of grandeur
D. delusion of persecution
79. Peter has been diagnosed with schizophrenia. When he talks he often stops in mid-sentence, falls silent for a minute or so, and resumes talking with no recollection of what the previous topic was. This illustrates a common part of the mental chaos of schizophrenia called:
A. splitting
B. catatonia
C. blocking
D. word salad
80. A young man begins talking about the stress in his life and says, "It's taken a toll. It tolls for me. The Liberty Bell is our nation's symbol. Life, liberty, and the pursuit of happiness. I sure ain't happy or gay. I'm definitely not gay---who says so?" This rambling form of speech is an example of:
A. loosening of associations
B. neologisms
C. blocking
D. clanging
81. Which disorder besides schizophrenia is sometimes characterized by associative problems in speech?
A. antisocial personality (psychopaths)
B. mania
C. obsessive-compulsive disorder
D. delusional disorder
82. A major difference between manic speech and schizophrenic speech is that:
A. manic speech tends to be more playful and flippant
B. manic speech rarely shows association problems
C. schizophrenic speech tends to be more coherent and thoughtful
D. schizophrenic speech tends to be playful and flippant
83. A schizophrenic conversing with his doctor says, "I saw a horse yesterday. Horses have 4 legs. Dogs have 4 legs, too. I once saw a dog with only 3 legs. Snakes have no legs." While the sentences are correct grammatically, the poor communication is an example of:
A. delusions of reference
B. poverty of content
C. clanging
D. word salad
84. Made-up words, often comprised of two words joined together, are features of schizophrenic speech called:
A. delusions
B. clang associations
C. autistic phrases
D. neologisms
85. A schizophrenic says to her doctor, "I sing like a ring on a wing with this thing." Her speech is an example of:
A. blocking
B. word salad
C. clanging
D. neologisms
86. Studies have shown that schizophrenics have difficulty with all of the following perceptual tasks except:
A. detecting smell
B. filtering out irrelevant stimuli
C. experiencing hallucinations
D. understanding the speech of others
87. A number of experts now believe that the basic pathology in schizophrenia involves:
A. hallucinations
B. an inability to exercise selective attention processes
C. an organic brain syndrome
D. a disorder of mood
88. Perceptions that occur in the absence of appropriate external stimulation are called:
A. delusions
B. loose associations
C. hallucinations
D. neologisms
89. According to clinical observations, the most common mode of hallucination is:
A. auditory
B. tactile
C. visual
D. olfactory
90. Which of the following symptoms is especially characteristic of schizophrenia?
A. speaking in rambling, disjointed ways
B. withdrawing from the presence of others
C. hearing two or more voices conversing with one another
D. believing that other people are in a conspiracy to hurt oneself
91. Which statement about hallucinations among schizophrenics is accurate?
A. Only a minority of schizophrenics want to be rid of their hallucinations.
B. Almost all schizophrenics see their hallucinations as alien, threatening experiences.
C. Those who continue to have hallucinations after treatment, report more visual hallucinations that come about unpredictably.
D. A sizable minority of schizophrenics find hallucinations soothing.
92. Research shows that auditory hallucinations in schizophrenics:
A. may be the patient's own voice speaking subvocally
B. are extremely rare, and a probable sign of malingering
C. are the direct result of olfactory misperceptions
D. a stress-related response to negative mood states
93. The terms "blunt affect" or "flat affect" mean that the schizophrenic:
A. says things without any tact or social grace
B. shows little or no emotion on his/her face
C. has wide mood swings that are related to feeling ineffective
D. shows emotions that are inappropriate for the situation
94. A schizophrenic sits in a corner of the hospital ward for hours running his finger around the edges of one of the floor tiles. This disorder of motor behavior is known as:
A. blocking
B. catatonia
C. anhedonia
D. stereotypy
95. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Hospitalized schizophrenics prefer socializing with other inpatients.
B. Hospitalized schizophrenics prefer socializing with hospital staff members.
C. Chronic schizophrenics engage in more small talk than nonschizophrenic inpatients.
D. Chronic schizophrenics often act as if other people do not exist.
96. When it comes to interpersonal skills, schizophrenics are:
A. unusually poor at picking up interpersonal cues from other people
B. more skilled than most non-psychotic populations
C. especially good at understanding other people's non-verbal communications
D. generally weak because they are exceptionally aware of their symptoms
97. The gradual downhill slide of schizophrenia generally marked by withdrawal and social isolation is called the __________ phase.
A. residual
B. active
C. prodromal
D. disorganized
98. In which phase of schizophrenia does a person show prominent psychotic symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions?
A. prodromal
B. active
C. residual
D. disorganized
99. Prodromal is to ________ as residual is to ________.
A. delusions; hallucinations
B. full-blown symptoms; left-over symptoms
C. emotional disturbance; cognitive disturbance
D. onset; recovery
his speech and thoughts are still peculiar. It is likely that he is in which phase of schizophrenia?
A. prodromal
B. active
C. residual
D. disorganized
except:
A. full-scale delusions
B. social isolation or withdrawal
C. marked impairment in personal hygiene
D. blunted or inappropriate affect
102. Which of the following is true about the course of schizophrenia?
A. Most schizophrenics remain actively schizophrenic all their lives.
B. Although they are more mentally impaired than others, schizophrenics tend to live longer lives than other people.
C. Most schizophrenics alternate between the residual and active phases of the disorder.
D. Once the residual phase is attained, relapse is very rare.
103. Childlike fantasies, pronounced incoherence of speech and giggling are all prominent features of ________ schizophrenia.
A. undifferentiated
B. disorganized
C. catatonic
D. paranoid
104. The fundamental abnormality of catatonic schizophrenia is:
A. severe motor disturbance
B. severe auditory disturbance
C. severely incoherent speech
D. grandiose delusional system
105. Echolalia refers to ________; echopraxia refers to ________.
A. incoherent speech, repeated pointless movements
B. parroting what others say; mimicking what others do
C. being mute; being motionless
D. catatonic speech; disorganized movement
106. The immobility of catatonic schizophrenia can be seen as willfulness. It can also be a result of:
A. responses to delusional beliefs
B. response to auditory hallucinations
C. atrophy in the cerebellum
D. residual "positive" symptoms
angels. Unfortunately, demons are trying to confuse her with their voices, and agents of Satan are everywhere, trying to destroy her before she can share this truth with the world. This patient's schizophrenia is of what type?
A. disorganized
B. paranoid
C. undifferentiated
D. negative-symptom
108. Compared to other forms of schizophrenia, paranoid schizophrenics usually:
A. have a very rapid onset of symptoms
B. develop symptoms gradually during their teens
C. have the worst recovery rate
D. show the most "normal" behavior before the onset of the disorder
then full-blown hallucinations and delusions. This patient's disorder would be classified as being what type of schizophrenia?
A. process
B. reactive
C. good premorbid
D. acute
her husband in a car accident. These symptoms lasted 7 months. This illustrates the ________ dimension of schizophrenia.
A. poor-premorbid
B. good-premorbid
C. negative symptom
D. Type II
following symptoms would this patient probably not have?
A. hallucinations
B. delusions
C. disorganized behavior
D. flat affect
schizophrenia?
A. poor premorbid adjustment
B. rapid onset
C. more likely to be women
D. onset late in life
following symptoms would this patient probably not have?
A. poverty of speech
B. social withdrawal
C. flat affect
D. hallucinations
114. Recent research on schizophrenia suggests that:
A. men are more likely than women to have affective symptoms
B. women are more likely than men to have poor premorbid histories
C. men are more likely to develop negative symptom schizophrenia than women
D. women are most at risk for schizophrenia under the age of 25
115. Type I schizophrenia is characterized by:
A. a positive response to medication and hallucinations
B. social withdrawal and apathy
C. structural abnormalities in the brain
D. poor premorbid adjustment and early onset
116. The primary criterion for differential diagnosis of brief psychotic disorder and schizophreniform disorder is the:
A. duration of the episode
B. patient's premorbid history
C. responsiveness to drug therapy
D. speed of onset
117. Which of the following is not true of brief psychotic disorder?
A. The disorder follows a severe psychological trauma.
B. Recovery is extremely rapid.
C. There is a prodromal phase.
D. It lasts less than one month.
118. What is the evidence that brief psychotic disorder represents something different from schizophrenia?
A. It has a longer prodromal phase than schizophrenia.
B. It has a longer recovery period than schizophrenia.
C. It has the opposite gender distribution of cases from schizophrenia.
D. It has clearer evidence of brain damage than schizophrenia.
119. Delusional disorders have as their fundamental abnormality:
A. incoherent speech
B. severe auditory disturbance
C. a delusional system
D. social withdrawal
120. Which of the following is not listed in DSM-IV as a common content category in delusional disorder?
A. persecutory
B. control
C. jealous
D. erotomanic
121. All of the following are major problems hampering research on schizophrenia except:
A. a lack of agreement on what schizophrenia actually is
B. an inconsistency in diagnostic measures
C. the fact that schizophrenia is a thought disorder, not a behavioral problem
D. disagreement on the primary pathology in schizophrenia
122. Since the 1960s there has been improvement in one area of research on schizophrenia. That area is:
A. interjudge reliability concerning diagnosis of the disorder
B. agreement on the primary problem in the disorder
C. elimination of the so-called "third variable" problem
D. the introduction of socioeconomic independent variables
123. A cognitive theorist and a psychodynamic theorist are discussing schizophrenia. It is most likely that:
A. both theorists will agree that schizophrenia is primarily a disorder of inattention
B. both theorists will agree that the primary pathology in schizophrenia is social withdrawal
C. the theorists will disagree about the primary pathology in schizophrenia
D. the theorists will not agree on how to diagnose schizophrenia, but will agree on what its primary pathology is
124. It is impossible to research schizophrenia utilizing randomized groups because:
A. defining an experimental group is impossible
B. one cannot expose an experimental group to a potentially hazardous situation
C. it is nearly impossible to get volunteers for a control group
D. all the research must be retrospective
125. If loose associations and flat affect only occurred in schizophrenia we would:
A. know the cause of the disorder
B. know how to treat the disorder
C. be able to identify a differential deficit at the core of the disorder
D. be able to decide if schizophrenia is biological or not
126. The inability to establish a causal relationship between events is the crux of the:
A. chicken-or-egg problem
B. problem of expectations
C. third-variable problem
D. experimental control-group problem
be schizophrenics who have:
A. been hospitalized and have been on antipsychotic drugs
B. been hospitalized but have not been on antipsychotic drugs
C. not been hospitalized but have been on antipsychotic drugs
D. not been hospitalized and have not been on antipsychotic drugs
128. Most of today's researchers have adopted the ________ model of schizophrenia.
A. diathesis-stress
B. environmental
C. sociocultural-family systems
D. biogenic
129. Schizophrenia is a disorder that is commonly understood using the diathesis-stress model. The term "diathesis" means:
A. a mental set or cognitive pattern
B. the family or culture in which one was born
C. a genetically-determined vulnerability
D. the level of social support one has to cope with stress
130. The belief that schizophrenia is inherited:
A. was first proposed around 1950
B. was central to the Greeks explanation of the disorder
C. was endorsed by Kraepelin, Bleuler, and other 19th century experts
D. was first proposed by Sigmund Freud
131. Family studies provide limited information about the biological roots of schizophrenia because:
A. environmental and genetic factors cannot be separated
B. it is not clear whether relatives of schizophrenics have a greater than normal chance of developing the disorder
C. it is difficult to find families that are willing to be studied
D. schizophrenics should be observed outside the family setting
132. Melissa's identical twin sister has developed schizophrenia. Melissa's chance of also becoming schizophrenic:
A. is no greater than for people without schizophrenic relatives
B. is much greater than if she had no relatives with the disorder
C. would be greater if her twin were a fraternal twin
D. is not so great as if her father or mother were schizophrenic
133. Which of the following is an accurate statement about a person's odds of developing schizophrenia during their lifetime?
A. In the general population, the risk is about 10 percent.
B. The child of a schizophrenic has no greater risk than the first cousin of a schizophrenic.
C. Identical twins and fraternal twins have the same risk.
D. The child of a schizophrenic has more than ten times the risk of a person in the general population.
dizygotic (fraternal) twins is ________.
A. nearly 100 percent; roughly 50 percent
B. about 40 percent; about 14 percent
C. about 10 percent; about 50 percent
D. roughly 10 percent; nearly 0 percent
135. Results of the various adoption studies in Denmark have, together, yielded which of the following conclusions?
A. Adopted children who later became schizophrenic were slight more likely to have biological, rather than adoptive, relatives with schizophrenia.
B. There is no substantial evidence that schizophrenia has a genetic basis.
C. Adopted children who later became schizophrenic were much more likely to have biological, rather than adoptive, relatives with schizophrenia.
D. Adopted children who later became schizophrenic were slightly more likely to have adoptive, rather than biological, relatives with schizophrenia.
136. Why is there excitement about the finding that many schizophrenics cannot visually track objects smoothly?
A. It is believed that eye problems cause hallucinations.
B. It is believed that this is a genetic marker for the disorder.
C. It is believed that eye problems identify those who can benefit from psychotherapy.
D. It is believed that those with eye problems are prone to positive symptom schizophrenia.
137. All of the following are characteristics of Mednick's study on high-risk children except the:
A. use of two control groups
B. elimination of bias from testing and diagnosis
C. study of children who had not experienced the effects of a schizophrenic life
D. study of children already exhibiting behavioral disturbances when the study began
schizophrenia from high-risk children who did not?
A. the stability of their home lives
B. being aggressive and unmanageable in school
C. being coordinated and athletic
D. medical complications before and during birth
139. Research on children at high risk for schizophrenia has found all of the following results except:
A. low-risk children had higher rates of schizophrenic-spectrum disorder if the family lived in poverty
B. low-risk children are less likely to display attention and adjustment problems
C. high-risk and low-risk children have different EEG patterns
D. high-risk children commit more criminal offenses
will later develop the disorder. Extrapolating from the "childhood home movies" research study, you should be concerned about all of the following behaviors except:
A. poor eye contact
B. poor motor coordination
C. few expressions of joy
D. verbal aggressiveness
shown that:
A. genetics play little or no role in the disorder
B. prenatal and birth trauma play little or no role in the disorder
C. disrupted home lives and institutionalization may convert vulnerability into schizophrenia
D. very few high-risk children can escape from developing the disorder
magical thinking, is using:
A. the behavioral high-risk design
B. the diathesis-stress model of research
C. a genetic high-risk design
D. a brain-imaging method of research
143. According to recent studies, which of the following behaviors seems to indicate a high risk for schizophrenia?
A. sexual deviation
B. aggressive behavior
C. mood swings
D. magical thinking
to uncover which of the following abnormalities?
A. enlarged brain ventricles
B. enlarged frontal lobes
C. small cerebellum
D. enlarged limbic area
145. PET scans of Type I (positive symptom) schizophrenia tend to show abnormalities in the:
A. occipital lobes
B. temporal lobes
C. cerebellum
D. limbic system
146. PET scans of Type II (negative symptom) schizophrenia tend to show abnormalities in the:
A. cerebellum
B. occipital lobes
C. corpus callosum
D. frontal lobes
147. Which of the following is evidence that schizophrenics have brains that are abnormal due to prenatal injury?
A. MZ twins, who normally have different fingerprints, have identical ones when the twins are schizophrenics.
B. The hemispheres of the brain are normally asymmetrical, but are symmetrical in schizophrenics.
C. The brains of schizophrenics shows structural change without the tissue-repair response usually seen in the third trimester.
D. The brains of schizophrenics show disruption in the neural migration that forms the association areas.
148. The most established biochemical theory of schizophrenia is the idea that:
A. imbalances of hormones make the schizophrenic emotionally unstable
B. phenothiazine activity is suppressed
C. there is excessive dopamine activity in the brain
D. L-dopa is absent from the schizophrenic's body
149. Antipsychotic drugs are most effective on which of the following schizophrenic symptoms?
A. thought disorder
B. flat affect
C. anxiety
D. hallucinations
amphetamine. The drug will probably:
A. have no effect
B. reduce such symptoms as delusions and hallucinations
C. plunge the person into a severe depression
D. intensify existing schizophrenic symptoms
151. Which of the following is evidence that schizophrenia may be triggered by a viral infection?
A. Most people with schizophrenia have an immunity to the virus that causes colds.
B. Schizophrenics are more likely to have sustained brain damage during birth.
C. Schizophrenia has many of the same symptoms seen in people who develop influenza.
D. Schizophrenics are disproportionately born during the winter months when viral infection is common.
152. The focus on dopamine in biochemical research has suggested:
A. a link between poor nutrition and the onset of schizophrenia
B. a link between Parkinson's disease and schizophrenia
C. that thought disturbance is not the fundamental symptom of the disorder
D. that hallucinations are the cause of chemical imbalance, not the effect of such imbalances
schizophrenia effectively, you would be interested in a compound that:
A. decreased dopamine activity in the limbic system
B. stimulated the activity of serotonin
C. increased dopamine activity in the frontal lobes
D. reduced adrenaline activity in the sympathetic nervous system
154. Chemotherapy is used to accomplish all of the following except:
A. bring the patient out of an acute schizophrenic breakdown
B. prevent a schizophrenic breakdown in a high-risk person
C. prevent relapse in patients with schizophrenia who are in remission
D. make management and control of schizophrenic patients easier
155. A chronic schizophrenic grimaces and smacks his lips uncontrollably. It is likely that this person:
A. was never diagnosed as having schizophrenia
B. suffers from tardive dyskinesia
C. has Parkinson's disease
D. has never been on antipsychotic drugs
156. Joel has tardive dyskinesia. We should expect that:
A. the problem will be resistant to treatment
B. the problem will disappear as soon as he stops taking antipsychotic medications
C. he will gain conscious control over his symptoms after being in therapy
D. he is a young man who has never been on medication before
157. Which statement about chemotherapy for schizophrenia is accurate?
A. With the proper medication, schizophrenia is cured by medication.
B. The drugs that are prescribed for schizophrenia produce a physical dependence on the drug.
C. Despite the drug revolution, chances for a full and permanent recovery from schizophrenia have not increased substantially.
D. Antipsychotic drugs produce depression, anxiety, and other major psychological disorders.
158. Cognitive theorists believe that the root cause of schizophrenia is:
A. a lack of consistent reinforcement
B. a biologically-based attention problem
C. found in dysfunctional family dynamics
D. due to alienation from social systems
159. According to cognitive theorists, schizophrenic symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions are the product of:
A. overattention to stimuli
B. lack of social reinforcement
C. early childhood dependency needs being met
D. faulty short-term memory
160. Type II schizophrenics:
A. rarely suffer from flat affect or social withdrawal
B. seem to be underattentive to external stimuli
C. often suffer from delusions and hallucinations
D. demonstrate excessive dopamine activity in the brain
161. Research shows that 40 to 50 percent of schizophrenics show a below-normal response on which cognitive task?
A. the orienting response
B. long-term memory
C. response to interfering stimuli
D. learning language
162. Cognitive theorists suggest that if we are to identify "preschizophrenic" people it will be by:
A. noting problems in long-term memory
B. listening to the unusual dreams of such children
C. focusing on the attention deficits of such children
D. reviewing the reasons these children got into trouble at school
163. Wendy has been described as a "schizophrenogenic mother." One characteristic not likely to describe her is:
A. overprotective
B. rejecting
C. affectionate
D. domineering
164. Families of schizophrenics are sometimes described as high in "expressed emotion." This means that family members tend to:
A. be highly critical of and emotionally overinvolved with the patient
B. express their emotions at inappropriate times
C. ignore the patient if he or she expressed emotions
D. be overly affectionate and empathic with one another
165. Recent research on family management training and schizophrenia has suggested that:
A. family dynamics do not affect the course of schizophrenia
B. it is difficult to change well-established patterns of communication
C. women are more likely to respond to such training than men
D. such training may prevent relapse
166. Which of the following is the best example of double-bind communication?
A. A father is highly critical yet overly emotionally involved with his child.
B. A mother tells her child to give her a hug, but when the child moves towards her says, "Not now, you idiot!"
C. A mother is so overinvolved in her child's life that she refuses to allow the child to make any decisions.
D. A father refuses to communicate directly with his child and makes all requests of the child through the mother.
167. Current research suggests that families of schizophrenics tend to:
A. be more inconsistent than control families
B. have deviant communication patterns
C. have deviant attitudes and values concerning family life
D. be more restrictive and authoritarian than control families
168. The most effective family treatments for schizophrenia have the following characteristics except:
A. a focus on events and unresolved conflicts from the past
B. the fostering of improved communications among family members
C. a stable, structured therapy format
D. behavioral techniques such as breaking down goals into smaller steps
169. According to Harry Stack Sullivan, the cause of a schizophrenic's anxiety is a(n):
A. overdeveloped sense of conscience
B. overimpulsive id
C. anxiety-ridden mother-child relationship
D. fear of social rules and individual independence
170. Psychodynamic therapy for schizophrenia differs from conventional psychoanalysis primarily in that it:
A. rejects the idea of the unconscious
B. wants to increase the patient's experience of anxiety
C. relies more on contingent reinforcement to teach problem solving
D. builds a warmer and more nurturing therapist-patient relationship
171. Which statement about psychodynamic treatment for schizophrenia is most accurate?
A. The majority of individuals treated for schizophrenia receive psychodynamic therapy.
B. Psychodynamic therapy for schizophrenia tends to be less directive and more emotionally cool than traditional psychoanalysis.
C. The object of therapy is to re-parent the schizophrenic and coax him or her out of withdrawal.
D. Psychodynamic therapy is the only form of treatment that can cure schizophrenia.
172. The humanistic approach to schizophrenia suggests that:
A. the family and society can force people to adopt a false self
B. treatment requires the therapist to be mystifying so that the patient sees the world in a new way
C. therapists are more in touch with reality than schizophrenic patients
D. the schizophrenic child dominates his or her parents in an attempt to gain independence
173. Milieu therapy programs:
A. place many restraints on the patient's freedom and behavior
B. assume that patients are not responsible for their behavior
C. encourage patients to participate in their own rehabilitation
D. put decision-making in the hands of family members and treatment staff
"hypersanity?"
A. It has superseded Laing's viewpoint.
B. It has confirmed what Laing said.
C. It has confirmed what Laing said, but only for positive-symptom schizophrenia.
D. It has changed the way humanistic psychologists view appropriate treatment.
175. One central principle of the behavioral perspective on schizophrenia today is that schizophrenics:
A. are qualitatively different from other people
B. need to be retrained to alter their pattern of behavior
C. are biologically just the same as other people
D. can be cured of their disease
176. The behavioral perspective of Ullmann and Krasner views schizophrenia as:
A. a biologically-caused inability to screen out irrelevant stimuli
B. a way of being more "real" than society expects one to be
C. a failure to learn appropriate behavioral cues
D. a breakdown in thinking and feeling caused by traumatic events
room but stop their strange behavior when they are unsupervised. This observation supports the ________ perspective on schizophrenia.
A. humanistic
B. cognitive
C. interpersonal
D. behavioral
178. If you support a behavioral approach to the treatment of schizophrenia, you would agree with the idea of:
A. providing encouragement and reinforcement no matter what the patient's behavior might be
B. emphasizing the modeling and reinforcement of social skills
C. both a and b
D. neither a nor b
and reward them with attention when they interact normally. The behavioral method being used in this example is:
A. systematic desensitization
B. token economy
C. direct reinforcement
D. social skill training
180. All of the following are currently hypothesized stresses that are associated with the development of schizophrenia except:
A. prenatal brain injury
B. high "expressed emotion" family interaction patterns
C. being an adopted child