PSYC 4720 ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
Spring Semester, 1999 – Prof. G.L. Kandel
Test Pool Questions for QUIZ 1 – February 3, 1999
1. Engaging in a behavior that is considered "wrong" in a particular culture would lead a person to be defined as "abnormal" by which of the following criteria?
A. personal discomfort
B. statistical rarity
C. maladaptive behavior
D. norm violation
2. Margaret wears only purple clothing. She dresses neatly and appropriately; it's just always in purple. If you think Margaret is abnormal, it is probably because you are using the __?___ standard for defining abnormality.
A. statistical rarity
B. norm violation
C. personal discomfort
D. maladaptive behavior
3. A criticism of the norm violation criterion of abnormality is that it:
A. stigmatizes the nonconformist
B. is very sensitive to cultural differences
C. overestimates the frequency of abnormality
D. is tied too closely to law
4. According to the statistical rarity point of view, you are considered normal if you:
A. do what most other people do
B. deviate substantially from average behavior
C. are very conscious of social mores
D. make many other people feel uncomfortable
5. Suppose a person has the ability to memorize music after hearing it played just once, something less than one percent of the population can do. This would be considered abnormal behavior by what definition?
A. personal discomfort
B. norm violation
C. deviation from an ideal
D. statistical rarity
6. A problem with the use of statistical rarity to define abnormal behavior is that it:A. makes treatment relatively difficultB. makes psychological assessment difficultC. considers average behavior to be idealD. is an overly complex standard of behavior
7. In an initial therapy session a client states, "I seem to have everything -- a good job, wonderful and supportive family and friends -- but I'm always depressed." Which criterion of abnormality best describes this client?A. statistical rarity
B. norm violation
C. maladaptive behavior
D. personal discomfort
8. The inability to work, function socially, and perform a normal daily routine demonstrates most specifically which standard of abnormality?A. statistical rarity
B. norm violation
C. maladaptive behavior
D. deviation from an ideal
9. An 8 year-old boy cannot complete homework assignments because he is eaily distracted and very restless. Because of this behavior he is not passing any of his subjects in school. The boy's problem best illustrates which definition of abnormality?
A. maladaptive behavior
B. deviation from an ideal
C. norm violation
D. personal discomfort
10. Conforming to society's expectations are issues for both the __?__ and the __?__ approaches to abnormality.
A. deviation from an ideal; personal discomfort
B. maladaptive behavior; cross-cultural
C. norm violation; maladaptive behavior
D. personal discomfort; statistical rarity
11. A therapist tells a depressed client, "I want you to remember these facts of life: All people are not equal. Life is not fair. You don't have to be perfect." What type of abnormality does the therapist perceive the client is experiencing?
A. maladaptive behavior
B. norm violation
C. statistical rarity
D. deviation from an ideal
12. Which of the following is NOT a category of behavior most societies identify as indicating mental disorder?A. beliefs or sensory perceptions most other people don't have
B. behavior that is harmful to one's self or others
C. highly unpredictable emotional behavioral
D. behavior that is boring because it is highly predictable
13. A behavior that is biogenic is one that is the result of:A. maladaptive learning
B. an existential crisis
C. malfunction within the body
D. unconscious conflict
14. A clinician believes that depression is the result of a biochemical malfunction, which is why drug therapy works so well. This attitude illustrates which perspective on abnormality?
A. cognitive
B. behavioral
C. neuroscience
D. psychodynamic
15. "Symptoms," "pathology, " and "cure" are terms used by many mental health professionals. These terms stem from the __?__ model.A. psychogenicB. sociocultural
C. medical
D. statistical rarity
16. Which perspective concentrates on the physical aspects of a disorder in an effort to understand its characteristics?A. cognitiveB. biologicalC. medicalD. psychodynamic
17. Which of the following perspectives of abnormal behavior is not primarily psychological in its approach?
A. biological
B. cognitive
C. psychodynamic
D. behavioral
18. A researcher uses brain imaging techniques to study schizophrenia. This method illustrates which approach to abnormal behavior?
A. psychodynamic
B. behavioral
C. cognitive
D. biological
19. A therapist who assumes that unconscious conflicts which began in childhood cause abnormal behavior most likely supports which of the following perspectives?
A. behavioral
B. cognitive
C. psychodynamic
D. biological
20. Which perspective argues that abnormal behavior is based on faulty learning?A. behavioralB. biologicalC. humanistic-existential
D. psychodynamic
21. Anna believes her fear of dogs developed because, as a child, whenever she expressed anxiety about dogs, her mother would reward her with attention and say "We're so much alike!" Anna's dog phobia would be explained best by which perspective?
A. biological
B. psychodynamic
C. behavioral
D. cognitive
22. Which statement about the mental health profesions is accurate?A. Psychiatrists have Ph. D. and Psy. D. degrees.B. Both social workers and psychiatrists can prescribe medications.
C. Clinical psychologists are trained in assessment, treatment, and research.
D. Almost all psychoanalysts are social workers or psychopharmacologists.
23. The process of cutting a hole in the skull of a person, to allow evil spirits to escape, is called:
A. humorism
B. lycanthropy
C. trephining
D. exorcism
24. Becauase trephining was mostly done on males and in various locations on the skull, it is now believed that it :A. involved a ritual to release evil spirits from the victim's brain.
B. was used to torture sinners.
C. was a surgical procedure to remove bone splinters and blood clots.
D. caused a change in the brain's balance of humors.
25. Hippocrates believed that the fundamental causes of abnormal behavior were:
A. psychological
B. demonic
C. biogenic
D. supernatural
26. Who was responsible for categorizing mental disorders in mania, melancholia, and phrenitis?A. KraepelinB. PlatoC. PinelD. Hippocrates
27. Pussin was an untrained layman at the Paris asylum of La Bicetre in the eighteenth century who:A. proved that the brain was responsible for most mental disorders.B. used bleeding and purging to treat violent patients.C. believed that even if patients were chained to a wall, they felt no pain.
D. found that patients became more manageable when treated gently.
28. Because of the influence of the Christian Church, during the medieval period, abnormal behavior was often explained by:
A. supernatural forces
B. imbalance of body humors
C. early childhood trauma
D. inadequate reinforcement
29. The first major efforts to provide community care for mentally ill people occurred in England during which of the following time periods?
A. Middle Ages
B. Renaissance
C. Eighteenth century
D. Nineteenth century
30. The first hospital exclusively for the insane was opened in the early 15th century in:A. SpainB. GreeceC. BelgiumD. England
31. Which of the following words originated from the description of the sounds that were made by patients confined in a London asylum?
A. chaos
B. cacophany
C. bedlam
D. insanity
32. "I am often given credit for beginning the movement for humane treatment of patients in asylums, but I was actually only continuing the work of an untrained layman who was my predecessor. Who am I?"
A. Philippe Pinel
B. Jean Esquirol
C. Jean-Baptiste Pussin
D. Benjamin Rush
33. In terms of mental hospital reform, which of the following names does not belong with the other three?
A. Pussin
B. More
C. Esquirol
D. Pinel
34. What was Benjamin Rush's main accomplishment in the field of mental health?A. He closed the hospital called "Bedlam."B. He was the first person to categorize disorders.
C. He was the founder of behavioral psychology.
D. He is the "father of American psychiatry."
35. The nineteenth century American educator who campaigned for humane treatment of the disturbed and founded 32 mental hospitals was:
A. Dorothea Dix
B. Phillipe Pinel
C. William Tuke
D. John Watson
36. Which drugs have been responsible for the reduction of the residential population in mental hospitals in recent years?A. antipsychotics
B. barbiturates
C. opiates
D. sedatives
37. What event marks the beginning of modern research psychology?A. Wundt establishes a laboratory to study thought and behavior.B. Freud publishes his first book on the unconscious and dreams.
C. Kraepelin establishes the first hospital to use moral therapy principles.
D. Charcot demonstrates the use of hypnosis to understand hysteria.
38. Psychopathology is another term for:A. abnormal behaviorB. the study of people who have no memory
C. the study of criminal behavior
D. brain disease
39. A distinct cluster of symptoms that describes a disorder is called a(n):A. psychopathologyB. prognosisC. syndromeD. etiology
40. The discovery that general paresis (a syndrome involving a gradual and irreversible breakdown of mental functions) was actually an advanced case of syphilis was a great boost for the __?__ model.
A. psychoanalytic
B. moral therapy
C. medical
D. sociocultural
41. A woman complains to her physician that she has no feeling in her left hand. Neurological tests do not reveal a physiological problem. The woman may be suffering from the hysterical disorder known as:
A. general paresis
B. glove anesthesia
C. schizophrenia
D. malingering
42. Freud used two methods to draw out the unconscious thoughts of his patients. They were:A. moral therapy and hypnosisB. truth serum and catharsisC. free association and hypnosisD. free association and moral therapy
43. At your first session with a therapist, she asks you to relax on a couch and say whatever comes to mind. The therapist is using which of the following techniques?A. hypnosisB. free associationC. transferenceD. meditation
44. According to the text, the process of collecting, organizing, and interpreting information about a person and his or her situation is called __?__ assessment.A. personalityB. behavioralC. psychologicalD. physiological
45. The two goals of psychological assessment are:
A. validation and description
B. prediction and validation
C. description and prediction
D. prescription and validation
46. In an initial psychotherapy session, a psychologist spends an hour observing the female client's dress and facial expressions while asking questions about her family, educational, and work experiences. Which aspect of psychological assessment is the psychologist addressing?
A. description
B. validation
C. prescription
D. prediction
47. A psychologist must decide if a hospitalized client who had been severely depressed and suicidal is ready to go home on a weekend pass. The psychologists' decision illustrates the __?__ aspect of psychological assessment.A. prediction
B. description
C. validation
D. diagnostic
48. The process by which a person's behavior is classified and labeled according to a set of recognized categories of abnormal behavior is called:A. prescriptionB. descriptionC. prognosis
D. diagnosis
49. The most recent edition of the DSM is:A. DSM-IIIB. DSM-III-RC. DSM-IVD. DSM-V
50. The DSM-IV has categories that:A. provide a description of each disorderB. indicate the specific criteria for each diagnosis
C. both a and b
D. neither a nor b
51. Rhonda says, "I'm afraid of riding in elevators because I have claustrophobia." Her statement would support which criticism of psychiatric diagnosis?A. Diagnosis implies that abnormal behavior is qualitatively different from normal behavior.
B. Diagnosis fails to provide a language for communicating about abnormal behavior.
C. Diagnosis provides an illusion of explanation.
D. Diagnosis fails to classify behavior adequately.
52. As a response to criticisms of the DSM system, a suggestion has been made that for certain abnormal behaviors:
A. specific criterion behaviors be necessary for inclusion in a category
B. diagnosis should be eliminated entirely
C. individuals should be scored on several dimensions rather than placing them in categories
D. a dominant pathology should be defined
53. A clinical psychologist says, "Hopelessness, sadness, and apathy are the defining characteristics of major depression." In terms of the DSM-IV, the psychologist's remarks:
A. contradict the basic method of the diagnostic system.
B. refer to the essential features of a disorder.
C. refer to the diagnostic criteria for a disorder
D. contradict what the DSM-IV suggests in terms of essential features.
54. Which of the following is the main conclusion of Rosenhan's experiment "On Being Sane in Insane Places" summarized in the text?A. It is fairly easy to be admitted to a psychiatric hospital.B. Treatment programs are not as effective as the public is led to believe.
C. Once a patient enters a mental hospital, it is unlikely he or she will leave.
D. Professionals have difficulty distinguishing the sane from the insane.
55. A patient suffered a stroke and now has trouble speaking. His clinician feels that the stroke has contributed to the patient@s depression. Information about the stroke would appear on DSM-IV Axis:
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
56. A clinical psychologist provides a diagnosis that indicates a clinical syndrome and a personality disorder, a medical problem that is relevant to the psychological problems and a description of the person's age and income. Which information is not to be included in a DSM-IV diagnosis?
A. personality disorders are not supposed to be included
B. medical problems are not supposed to be included
C. age and income information is not supposed to be included
D. the clinical syndrome is not supposed to be included
57. Information on Axis II of the DSM-IV indicates:
A. a personality disorder
B. a relevant medical condition
C. the person's most recent level of functioning
D. any recent stressors that contributed to the psychological problem
58. During the past month John was divorced and laid off from his job. He is now hospitalized for anxiety. Information about his divorce and job situation would be included on DSM-IV Axis:
A. II
B. III
C. IV
D. V
59. Because it implied a Freudian theory of causation, the term __?__ was dropped from the DSM in 1980.
A. neurosis
B. prognosis
C. psychosis
D. etiology
60. If a test provides consistency in its measurement, it is said to be:A. validB. reliableC. predictiveD. descriptive
61. A student takes a test and gets an A on the first half and an F on the second half. This test could be criticized for lacking:
A. validity
B. interjudge reliability
C. test-retest reliability
D. internal consistency
62. Some people diagnosed with a major depressive episode experience significant weight loss; other experience significant weight gain. Some want to sleep all the time while others suffer from insomnia. The fact that extreme opposites of behavior can lead to a similar diagnosis questions the __?__ validity of the diagnosis.
A. test-retest
B. descriptive
C. content
D. predictive
63. James smokes marijuana daily and is almost always "stoned." He has lost several jobs because of his marijuana smoking. In addition, James experiences hallucinations, delusions, and incoherent thinking---the cardinal signs of paranoid schizophrenia. James illustrates the diagnostic problem called:
A. pathognomic symptoms
B. pathological bias
C. comorbidity
D. neurosis
64. A clinical psychologist collects information about a patient's age, marital status, educational history, and history of responding to treatment. She then consults tables based on the history of successful treatment of other, similar people to decide whether the patient should be hospitalized or not. The psychologist's reliance on statistical data illustrates:
A. the difficulty of comorbidity in assessment
B. the use of actuarial judgment
C. the use of clinical judgment
D. the superiority of structured interviewing
65. An industrial psychologist observes that workers in a factory work harder immediately before paychecks are issued. This observation demonstrates a __?__ variable.A. personB. situationalC. functionalD. structural
66. If different parts of a test yield the same results, the test is said to demonstrate:
A. test-retest reliability
B. inter-judge reliability
C. internal consistency
D. predictive validity
67. In psychiatric diagnoses, the most crucial criterion of reliability is:
A. interjudge reliability
B. test-retest reliability
C. internal consistency
D. predictive consistency
68. A psychologist diagnoses a young man with both antisocial personality disorder and alcoholism. Treatment is prescribed for the alcoholism but not the antisocial personality disorder. The psychologist is:
A. accepting the fact that comorbid disorders must have one primary problem
B. recognizing that the two disorders interact to produce a more complex problem
C. assuming that the alcoholism came before the antisocial personality disorder
D. ignoring the fact that effective treatment of one comorbid disorder can be undercut by failing to treat the other
69. Which type of test is based on the assumption that people's motives must be drawn out indirectly because they are usually unconscious?
A. projective personality test
B. self-report personality inventory
C. intelligence test
D. measures of organic impairment
70. Which of the following tests measures and records the electrical activity of the brain?
A. electromyogram
B. electroencephalogram
C. galvanic skin response
D. polygraph
71. Diagnosticians who support the __?__ perspective are most likely to emphasize a situational approach to assessment.
A. behavioral
B. psychodynamic
C. existential
D. both b and c
72. The systematic dissection of a patient's behavior into all of its components is called functional analysis. Which perspective employs this method of psychological assessment?
A. behavioral
B. neuroscience
C. humanistic
D. psychodynamic
73. The sociocultural approach would be most likely to make which of the following criticisms of assessment?A. Diagnosticians often act as though all ethnic groups have the same sets of norms for behavior.
B. Diagnosticians make the mistake of emphasizing situation variables when they should look at person variables.
C. Too few diagnosticians highlight the self-defeating thoughts of individuals they assess.
D. Assessment requires a standardized approach so that all individuals are measured with the same, reliable instruments.
74. A clinician is using the DSM-IV when assessing a person from a culture where ghosts and visions of dead relatives are believed to speak to the living. The clinician should:
A. diagnose the person as having a severe mental disorder.
B. not do a diagnosis unless the clinician is from that culture, too.
C. use a depth interview to find out if the person has a severe disorder.
D. look at the "Glossary of Culture-Bound Syndromes" to see if the symptoms warrant a diagnosis.
75. Research on cultural differences and diagnosis shows that:A. diagnosticians see patients who speak a second language as having more severe pathology than those speaking their native
language.
B. diagnosticians see patients who speak a second language as having less severe pathology than those speaking their native language.
C. both a and b are true
D. neither a nor b are true
76. Which approach to assessment would emphasize the relationships a person has more than the internal problems of that person?A. cognitiveB. biologicalC. interpersonalD. behavioral
77. Dr. Morton says, "I see psychopathology as a loss of individuality. Diagnosis is not nearly so important as my ability to help the patient reveal their subjective reality and become fully aware of his or her real self." Dr. Morton probably supports the _______ approach to assessment.
A. humanistic-existential
B. behavioral
C. interpersonal
D. cognitive
78. Organic brain disorders differ from other types of mental disorders in that:A. they are unrelated to ageB. emotions are not involved in the symptomsC. they are, by definition, biogenic
D. judgment is rarely impaired
79. All of the following are major symptoms of organic brain disorders except impairment of:A. vision and hearingB. memoryC. orientationD. judgment
80. Mrs. Z. has a cognitive disorder. She flirts with strangers, gives away her money, and calls her daughter ten times a day to ask for advice about which meals she should fix for herself. This illustrates impairment of:
A. emotional resilience
B. emotional expression
C. judgment
D. orientation
81. All of the following are reasons that differential diagnosis of organic brain disorders is a difficult task except:A. symptoms of various organic brain disorders overlap considerablyB. disorders with similar etiologies may produce widely different symptoms
C. symptoms of various organic brain disorders overlap considerably with symptoms of psychogenic disorders
D. organic brain disorders are very rare so little is known about them
82. Your textbook points out four major changes that occur in aging individuals that put them at risk for psychological disturbance. Which of the following is not one of the four?
A. being forced into close interpersonal contact with other people
B. loss of meaningful work
C. changes in physical appearance
D. worries about adequate financial resources
83. Language impairments that are caused by damage, in most people, to the left hemisphere, are called:A. agnosiasB. vascular dementiasC. aphasiasD. apraxias
84. An elderly person who is anxious and depressed:A. is usually diagnosed as suffering from a psychogenic disturbanceB. is probably experiencing an endogenous disorder since there are few stressors involved in the aging processC. can not benefit from psychotherapy
D. can benefit from psychotherapy
85. Laura, 82, had a large stroke affecting her left hemisphere. She speaks in jumbled language now: "Little now girl and going going we say it bring." This illustrates:A. apraxiaB. impairment of orientation
C. nonfluent aphasia
D. fluent aphasia
86. After a stroke, an elderly woman is diagnosed as suffering from aphasia. This means that she is experiencing a disturbance of:A. sensory perceptionB. languageC. voluntary movement
D. involuntary movement
87. Language is to __?__ as voluntary movement is to __?__.A. agnosia; aphasiaB. right hemisphere; left hemisphereC. aphasia; apraxiaD. apraxia; agnosia
88. An elderly woman develops a number of eccentric behaviors, including attempting to zipper clothes that have buttons, brushing her hair with scissors, and looking for a carton of milk in her medicine chest. Yet, she has full understanding of the movements she attempts and has normal primary motor skills. Assuming that this woman suffers from organic damage, her disability would be labeled a(n):
A. agnosia
B. fluent aphasia
C. nonfluent aphasia
D. apraxia
89. Which of the following is not classified as a cerebral infection?A. cerebral abscess
B. encephalitis
C. laceration
D. neurosyphilis
90. An infection in the brain that has been encapsulated by connective tissue is called a(n):A. aneurysmB. cerebral abscessC. encephalitic infectionD. cortical infection
91. An infant developed an infection accompanied by a high fever. Shortly after, the child experienced severe drowsiness, fell into a coma, and died. An autopsy revealed that the infant's brain was swollen. The diagnosis would be that the child died from:
A. meningitis
B. cerebral abscess
C. encephalitis
D. neurosyphilis
92. Which of the following is not considered a brain trauma?A. concussionB. contusionC. infarctionD. laceration
93. The most common cause of serious head injury is:
A. participation in sports
B. car and motorcycle accidents
C. gunshot wounds to the head
D. accidental falls while drunk
94. The condition resulting from a blow to the head that may cause temporary unconsciousness is called a(n):
A. stroke
B. laceration
C. impact dysfunction
D. concussion
95. Jarring the brain and short-term unconsciousness are to __?__ as bruising the brain and coma are to __?__.A. concussion; contusionB. apraxia; agnosia
C. general paresis; cerebral infection
D. contusion; laceration
96. "Traumatic delirium" is seen in severe cases of:A. concussionB. contusionC. lacerationD. stroke
97. The correct order of increasing severity of brain trauma is:
A. contusion, concussion, laceration
B. contusion, laceration, concussion
C. laceration, concussion, contusion
D. concussion, contusion, laceration
98. When a person is shot in the head and brain tissue is destroyed, the trauma is considered:
A. lethal
B. a laceration
C. a contusion
D. a cerebrovascular accident
99. The classic case history of Phineas P. Gage and the iron bar illustrates how brain __?__ alters personality.A. contusionB. concussionC. tumor
D. laceration
100. Another, better known, term for cerebrovascular accident is:
A. concussionB. epilepsyC. strokeD. tumor
A. hemorrhage
B. infarction
C. aneurysm
D. contusion
102. After a cerebrovascular accident an elderly man seems disoriented, disorganized, and violently furious about his many symptoms. In order to help remember the names of objects in his room, he has his daughter attach labels to them. Now he becomes angry if a nurse throws a label away or moves his objects. This man seems to be suffering from a(n):
A. traumatic delirium
B. catastrophic reaction
C. apraxia and agnosia
D. early symptom of Alzheimer's disease
A. sexB. ageC. religious affiliationD. diet
due to progressive brain damage.A. DeliriumB. CerebrovascularC. DegenerativeD. Traumatic brain
A. Korsakoff's psychosisB. Parkinson's disease
C. AIDS dementia
D. Alzheimer's disease
A. that is a natural part of the aging processB. that occurs when blood flow in the brain is suddenly blockedC. involving severe organic deterioration in the brain of an elderly person
D. involving tissue destruction because of infection
recalling names and words. She can talk, in detail, about her graduation from grammar school but has trouble remembering appointments or even what she last ate. She asks the same questions over and over again and sometimes wanders away from home. This woman is probably suffering from:
A. Parkinson's disease
B. Huntington's chorea
C. senile dementia
D. Alzheimer's disease
hypothetical drugs would interest you?
A. Drug A, which reduces concentrations of beta-amyloid
B. Drug B, which reduces acetylcholine levels
C. Drug C, which narrows the diameter of brain blood vessels
D. Drug D, which increases the production of dopamine
109. Which of the following are considered risk factors that may combine with genetic predisposition to cause Alzheimer's disease?
A. head injury
B. old age
C. both a and b
D. neither a nor b
110. A 60-year-old man complains of problems with memory and an inability to express himself correctly. His family notices that he
is losing interest in personal hygiene. A physical examination also reveals hypertension, symptoms of kidney failure, and retinal sclerosis. It is likely that this man suffers from:A. Alzheimer's disease
B. vascular dementia
C. Huntington's chorea
D. Parkinson's disease
A. head injury; a history of concussion
B. intravenous drug use; AIDS dementia
C. hypertension; a history of stroke
D. endocrine dysfunction; hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism
A. is a form of senile dementiaB. can be detected shortly after birth because of obvious behavioral abnormalities
C. is known to be transmitted genetically
D. is more common among Americans than Europeans
stiff, bent-over gait. It is likely that Carmen suffers from:A. Huntington's choreaB. Alzheimer's diseaseC. Parkinson's diseaseD. meningitis
hyperalert, profoundly confused and angry, and began to hallucinate. Within a few days, he returned to his former level of functioning and had no recall for his peculiar behavior. James probably had the cognitive disorder called:
A. Korsakoff's psychosis
B. Alzheimer's disease
C. delirium
D. senile dementia
himself, he weaves fantastic stories in order to fill his memory gaps and he seems unaware that the stories are untrue. It is likely that these symptoms are due to:
A. hyperthyroidism
B. excessive dopamine
C. a deficiency of thiamine, a form of Vitamin B
D. a genetically transmitted disorder involving amyloid protein
A. too much activity produces sluggishness, depression, and poor memoryB. too little activity produces a syndrome very similar to the stroke victim's catastrophic reaction
C. both a and b
D. neither a nor b
A. Graves' diseaseB. Addison's diseaseC. hypothyroidism
D. Korsakoff's psychosis
as suffering from Cushing's syndrome. Her disorder is due to a(n):A. underactive thyroid gland
B. overactive adrenal gland
C. underactive thyroid gland
D. deficiency of niacin and thiamine
A. toxicB. endocrineC. degenerativeD. nutritional
120. Excessive ingestion of certain metals can lead to memory loss, paralysis, and psychosis. What list of metals below is likely to cause such cognitive symptoms?A. iron, aluminum, and titaniumB. copper, aluminum, and tinC. lead, mercury, and manganese
D. silver, gold, and titanium
A. compulsionB. obsessionC. anxietyD. dissociation
dizzy. Art is experiencing the __?__ of anxiety.A. physiological responsesB. subjective reactionsC. behavioral responsesD. interpersonal effects
123. Which statement about anxiety is true?
A. Anxiety has no functional value.
B. Most people feel intense anxiety most of the time.
C. All people feel anxiety in moderate degrees.
D. Anxiety cannot be considered a normal part of human existence.
A. are categorized as subdivisions of neuroses in DSM-IV
B. leave reality contact relatively unimpaired
C. involve the channelling of anxiety into bodily symptoms
D. are regarded as signs of future schizophrenia
125. The disorders once called "neuroses" were seen by Freud as:
A. caused by nervous system damage
B. related to poor genetic material
C. caused by the expression or defense against anxiety
D. being the most severe forms of psychological disorder
126. Which of the following is true of anxiety disorders?
A. They are the most crippling of all disorders.
B. They are quite severe but also quite rare.
C. They lead to severe physical problems but not psychological disorders.
D. They are the most common disorders and lead to other serious conditions.
A. panic disorderB. obsessive-compulsive disorderC. somatoform disorderD. phobic disorder
128. Panic disorder and generalized anxiety disorder are similar in that:
A. they involve a loss of contact with reality
B. fear is aroused by one particular object or situation
C. anxiety is not focused
D. they are accompanied by a fear of disease
is going to die. After this episode, she begins to fear shopping among large crowds of people. She has experienced a(n):A. obsessionB. conversion disorder
C. panic attack
D. compulsion
A. phobiasB. panic attacksC. posttraumatic reactionsD. obsessions
131. Fear of being in a public situation without escape or help in case of a panic attacks is characteristic of:
A. agoraphobia
B. acrophobia
C. obsessive-compulsive disorder
D. social phobia
A. The lifetime prevalence of panic attacks is less than one percent.
B. Most panic disorder patients can have an attack induced by sodium lactate.
C. Sodium lactate induces panic attacks in all people.
D. Panic attacks are less severe in people who have panic disorder than in people who do not develop the disorder.
by his physician. He is always tense and has started to develop headaches and muscle twitches. Drew seems to be suffering from __?___ disorder.
A. generalized anxiety
B. somatoform
C. panic
D. obsessive-compulsive
A. failure to communicateB. avoidance behaviorC. panic attacks
D. chronic and diffuse apprehension
A. unpleasant thought and repeated, unwanted actionB. depersonalization and derealizationC. panic attack and fear of being alone in publicD. irrational fear and avoidance
places that can be reached by stairs. Ray suffers from which phobia?
A. claustrophobiaB. acrophobiaC. agoraphobia
D. social phobia
A. Specific phobias are much more common in men than in women.B. Specific phobias involve fear of public humiliation.C. Specific phobias are extremely rare disorders.
D. Specific phobias are twice as common in women as in men.
138. Social phobics are different from people with specific phobias in that they:
A. have a fear that occurs in only limited situations.B. have rather mild physiological reactions when they are in the feared situation
C. are more impaired by their fears
D. tend to be outgoing and confident in themselves
A. overprotectiveness B. emotional unsupportiveness
C. overconcern about dress, grooming, and manners
D. over-encouragement to socialize
A. generalized anxiety
B. hypochondriacal
C. obsessive-compulsive
D. phobic
A. thought; behaviorB. behavior; emotionC. thought; emotionD. behavior; phobia
142. Which of the following is the best example of a compulsion?
A. A girl thinks about a rock singer morning, noon, and night.
B. A man calls his children fifteen times a day to make sure they are healthy.
C. A nurse checks twice to make sure a patient gets the correct dose of medicine.
D. A soldier remembers the day when his best friend was shot in battle.
A. A man must check 70 times to make sure his door is locked before he can fall asleePage:
B. A woman has constant thoughts about taking her clothes off in public.
C. A man suddenly develops a paralysis for which there is no physical cause.
D. A woman has panic attacks whenever she goes out in public.
she has pulled out so much hair, she has a bald spot. A reasonable diagnosis for Melinda is:
A. obsessive-compulsive disorderB. specific phobicC. trichotillomania
D. Tourette's syndrome
A. irritability and insomniaB. obsessions and compulsionsC. extreme anxiety and depressionD. hallucinations and delusions
A. duration of exposure to a traumatic situationB. family history of psychopathologyC. nature of traumaD. brain abnormalities
would most likely experience which type of posttraumatic stress disorder symptoms?
A. emotional numbingB. difficulty in concentrating
C. phobias
D. nightmares
later:
A. about 4 percent still suffered from posttraumatic stress disorder
B. over half still suffered from posttraumatic stress disorder
C. over half had developed trichotillomania
D. almost all of the people who once had posttraumatic stress disorder had recovered
149. All of the following seem to have contributed to the high rate of posttraumatic stress disorder after the Vietnam War except:
A. the American public's opposition to the war
B. abrupt removal from combat
C. extremely poor living conditions
D. little chance to develop group identity
150. A survivor of a severe traffic accident who experiences the disaster syndrome will experience __?__ first.
A. shock
B. depression
C. passivity
D. anger
151. Which of the following is a problem with the classification of posttraumatic stress disorder?
A. It occurs so rarely that diagnosticians cannot recognize it.
B. Its symptoms mimic those of schizophrenia and conversion disorder.
C. It is diagnosed by psychoanalytic clinicians only.
D. It shares many of the symptoms of anxiety and dissociative disorders.
152. According to psychodynamic theory, what is at the root of neurosis?
A. avoidance learning
B. anxiety from internal threats
C. impaired self-concept
D. brain dysfunction
153. According to a large-scale study of rape survivors, the aftermath of rape includes:
A. an increased sense of self-confidence and control
B. psychotic symptoms such as hallucinations, in about one-half the cases
C. most of the anxiety disorders, especially posttraumatic stress disorder
D. a paradoxical increase in sexual interest and functioning
154. According to psychodynamic theory, which defense mechanism is most likely to be at work in phobic disorders?
A. sublimation
B. displacement
C. intellectualization
D. projection
particular underlying conflict.
A. psychodynamic
B. cognitive
C. behavioral
D. interpersonal
156. Preliminary research indicates that all of the following defense mechanisms are associated with panic disorder patients except:
A. displacement
B. reaction formation
C. intellectualization
D. somatization
using the therapy technique called __?__.
A. psychodynamic; projective personality test
B. cognitive; systematic desensitization
C. behavioral; systematic desensitization
D. psychodynamic; free association
158. According to the humanists, the seat of anxiety is:
A. the self-concept
B. avoidance learning
C. repressed childhood events
D. lack of close relationships
159. Behaviorists believe that anxiety disorders arise from:
A. unconscious conflicts
B. an impaired self-concept
C. misperceptions
D. faulty learning
160. Behaviorists believe that anxiety disorders are learned through a two-stage process that involves:
A. repression of unconscious conflicts and avoidance of anxiety
B. modeling and shaping
C. rewards for incompetent behavior and reduction in social skills
D. classically conditioned fear and operantly conditioned avoidance
161. According to cognitive theorists, the problem with anxiety disorder patients is:
A. avoidance learning
B. faulty neurotransmitters
C. misperceptions or misinterpretations of stimuli
D. repression
which anxiety disorder?
A. generalized anxiety disorder
B. posttraumatic stress disorder
C. panic disorder
D. phobia
163. The neurotransmitter that is activated by the benzodiazepines and, therefore, is involved in the inhibition of anxiety is:
A. norepinephrine
B. dopamine
C. GABA
D. acetylcholine
164. One reason to believe that panic disorder and generalized anxiety disorder are, indeed, different phenomena is:
A. the fact that different types of drugs are useful in treating the conditions
B. research showing that genetics is much more involved in generalized anxiety disorder
C. PET scans showing strong firing in the locus ceruleus in generalized anxiety disorder but not panic disorder
D. a remarkable similarity between panic disorder and Tourette's syndrome